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Chapters and Verses

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Salty, Jan 30, 2011.

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  1. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    This is a question for KJO - Many will state we must go by the originals - only. Then if so, why would you not insist in refusing to use chapter and verse divisions - since they did not come into use until the 15oo's.

    Not a facetious question - just thinking consistency.
     
    #1 Salty, Jan 30, 2011
  2. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Chapter divisions were made about 1227 by Stephen langton. Verse divisions in the O.T.were made by a Jewish rabbi in 1448. Stephanus made verse divisions for the N.T.in 1555.

    A number,not all,of KJVO's don't want to talk about the originals at all. As far as they are concerned the KJV is the original. I know at least question is :What particular KJV?
     
    #2 Rippon, Jan 30, 2011
  3. R. Lawson

    R. Lawson New Member

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    Rippon,

    I recall Michael Patton from the Theology Program saying that there were many versions of chapters and verses. One example was Matthew having 70 different chapter divisions.

    Is this true?:wavey:
     
    #3 R. Lawson, Jan 30, 2011
  4. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    (Sorry, I'm not Rippon) but it is true. Many ancient manuscripts exibit various divisions of the scriptures; those are handwritten documents, not complete printed texts though.

    Most printed Bibles have be rather consistent since the late 16th century. Although, I own a 1947 Swann New Testament with text numbered (just 'verses', no chapters) consecutively from Matthew to Revelation (his 'verses' average about 4 times the length of our standard verses). For example, verse 1378 begins "All scripture is God-breathed,..." (2 Tim 3:16).
     
    #4 franklinmonroe, Jan 30, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Jan 30, 2011
  5. mets65

    mets65 New Member

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    I think its just much easier to reference. Its not a bad thing if verses are another way, its just not pratical.
     
    #5 mets65, Jan 31, 2011
  6. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    That is not the question - in fact the question is only for KJO's.

    If it was not in the orginials - and therefore not inspired - why do you allow it in the KJV -(regardliss of edition)
     
    #6 Salty, Jan 31, 2011
  7. mets65

    mets65 New Member

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    A KJO will say the KJV was inspired that way. Are there many KJO here?
     
    #7 mets65, Jan 31, 2011
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