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The KJV Omits "Jesus Christ our Lord" Other words found in NIV

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by InTheLight, Feb 9, 2011.

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  1. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    We've all seen the lists of so-called 'missing verses' from the KJV that the NIV and other translations omit.

    I've been making lists of missing words and bad translations of verses that the KJV bungles compared to the NIV.

    Jude 25
    25to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen. [NIV]

    25To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen. [KJV]

    KJV OMITS Jesus Christ our Lord


    John 14:14
    14You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it. [NIV]

    14If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it. [KJV]

    KJV OMITS "me", removing Jesus from the verse


    Romans 1:4
    4and who through the Spirit of holiness was declared with power to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord. [NIV]

    4And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead [KJV]

    KJV OMITS Jesus Christ our Lord


    Mark 3:20
    20Then Jesus entered a house, and again a crowd gathered, so that he and his disciples were not even able to eat. [NIV]

    20And the multitude cometh together again, so that they could not so much as eat bread. [KJV]

    KJV OMITS Jesus and he and his disciples


    Romans 8:16
    16The Spirit himself testifies with our spirit that we are God's children. [NIV]

    16The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God: [KJV]

    KJV changes the Holy Spirit from a person of the Trinity into an impersonal "it".


    Acts 4:25
    25You spoke by the Holy Spirit through the mouth of your servant, our father David:
    " 'Why do the nations rage and the peoples plot in vain? [NIV]

    25Who by the mouth of thy servant David hast said, Why did the heathen rage, and the people imagine vain things? [KJV]

    KJV OMITS Holy Spirit, denying inspiration


    Colossians 2:9
    9For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, [NIV]

    9For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. [KJV]

    KJV changes "Christ" to "him", uses archaic "Godhead" instead of "Deity"



    1 Cor 6:9 Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders. [NIV]

    9Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind [KJV]

    KJV is soft on homosexuality, changes homosexual offenses to ambiguous phrase "abusers of themselves with mankind".
     
  2. Steadfast Fred

    Steadfast Fred Active Member

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    Or NIV added all those words.
     
  3. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    If it's good enough for the KJV....
     
  4. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus Well-Known Member
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    You realize the NIV uses a different translation philosophy than the KJV right?

    The NIV is famous/notorious for adding words and phrases for clarification that don't exist in the Greek text.

    The ultimate test of any translation should be fidelity to the original languages. Imho, both the KJV and NIV are excellent translations.

    A lot of the differences are textual ones since the Textus Receptus (TR) varies from the MT (majority text) in the Greek at a few points.

    For instance the John 14 passage με is omitted in several older manuscripts probably because of a transmission error, likely for brevity and clarity. The TR also misses this word. So it isn't surprising it isn't in the KJV.

    Now that doesn't change the meaning of the verse between the NIV and the KJV.

    I could go citation by citation and point these things out. Suffice to say the OP is, imho, being overly pointed in its criticism of the KJV. These matters aren't that important to disqualify one translation over another.
     
  5. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    Yes, the KJV is mostly literal; the NIV is trying to capture the meaning of the original verses.

    Sure, just look at that verse about homosexuality in 1 Cor 6:9. The NIV renders the meaning more clearly than the KJV. I wonder which version added a phrase? Hmmm...

    Take the hypothetical case of translating the english idiom, "I made it by the skin of my teeth" into Russian (or some other language, doesn't really matter.) If following the style of the KJV you would get, "The skin of my teeth allowed me to make it", whereas the NIV style would yield, "I barely got by".


    I made this post kind of tongue-in-cheek because KJVO like to make the same sort of lists. I'm just trying to point out that it can go both ways since these two translations are based on different underlying manuscripts.
     
  6. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus Well-Known Member
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    Ah, I might have missed the irony. It's hard to read vocal inflections through the keyboard. :)

    Apologies if I sounded harsh. :thumbsup:
     
  7. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    This type of thread only leads to needless fights. We are covering ground covered scores of times before.
     
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