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Do you see ether RSV/NRSV as being "acceptable" study versions?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by JesusFan, Dec 13, 2011.

  1. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Is it that they tend to be in liberal study bibles that give both of them "bad names?"

    or are they bad translations in sense of conveying word of God to us today?
     
  2. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus Well-Known Member
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    Several journals I read and submit things to use the NRSV as their default text. Its a fine translation, I don't use it much (I hate the conversations I have to have and frankly can alleviate my frustrations by using another translation.)

    If you're looking to do study utilizing several texts like NIV(84), NLT, ESV, NASB, KJV, and such I'd include it. The scholarship at the time fo the translation was rather good.
     
  3. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    heard that the NRSV is the standard version used in "Theology", amomg "Bible scholars"....

    Think main problem with it is that it got stuck as the text in critical/liberal" study bibles, also it was one the first to go the gender inclusive route big time!
     
  4. jaigner

    jaigner Active Member

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    Fundamentalists reacted negatively to the RSV (a good translation for its time), and much of that has carried over to the NRSV. Anyone suggesting it's not reliable is, frankly, not educated on it and is listening to some fundamentalist wackos who don't like it.

    It's only gender inclusive when the original languages are, as well. There is no reason to say "man" when the text would indicate "humanity."
     
  5. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    So the NRSV would tilt towards Liberal, while the NIV 2011 tilt towards more consrative as regards to translations and gender renderings?
     
  6. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus Well-Known Member
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    How did you get this conclusion from what jaigner said?

    Anybody saying the NRSV "tilts" liberal (not Liberal) would have the burden of proof on themselves. It's a decent translation, though the overwhelming sentiment of the translation committee would have been moderate to leftist in theology. The actual text, IMHO, shows little of this.
     
  7. jaigner

    jaigner Active Member

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    Sweet mercy, no. Throw out the "liberal" and "conservative" words. They are not appropriate to use for Bible translations. The NRSV is no more "liberal" than the NIV.
     
  8. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    why is it then that conservative Christians have reacted against it as being a good version to use for Bible study?

    read reviews that ranged from gpong overboard on being gender inclusive, to not having a solid view on messianic texts within the OT?
     
  9. go2church

    go2church Active Member
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    NRSV is a good translation and I would recommend it. The text isn't liberal or conservative, what you should be concerned with is the notes of the editors of whatever study bible you are looking at. Those most certainly can be tilted left or right.

    Good NRSV study bible - the Harper Study Bible
     
  10. jaigner

    jaigner Active Member

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    You really should include subjects in you sentence. Do you mean "I read reviews" or "I have read" or "They read." You're barely intelligible sometimes.

    These "conservative" Christians you have read or spoken to are simply mistaken or have an agenda against any hint of gender inclusiveness. Any reputable evangelical scholar will tell you it's a find translation.
     
  11. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    The perception of "liberal" perhaps is due to the untraditional way the version translates texts such as Isaiah 7:14.

    Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.
    Isaiah 7:14 (NRSV)

    Rob
     
  12. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Even the stalwart NASBU has Or: maiden in the footnote.
     
  13. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    isn't the problem here in this translation though that the hebrew word that we are translating has the conotation of the young woman was to be seen in that culture as also being assumed to be a virgin?

    that its still best and properto render it as a Virgin?

    Also, isn't this to be a direct prediction/prophecy of the messiah to come?

    So translating "young woman" really negates OT prophetic element/supernatural understandings
     
  14. jaigner

    jaigner Active Member

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    Oh sweet mercy. I'm going to go bang my head on a brick wall now.
     
  15. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Not going to argue for one or antoher - plenty of post threads to look at but the real question here is:

    Did Isaiah’s prophecy have a double fulfillment, one in his time and a second, later messianic fulfillment?

    Some think a correct translation of the word Isaiah used would allow both options, as it would have in Isaiah’s time.

    Rob
     
  16. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    You do realise they denied the prophetic element of the OT, as they did not see the Messiah here?
     
  17. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Think easiest way to answer this qiestion would be that there was an immediate fulfillment with birth of son in that time period of the prophet, so young woman would fit there, but future fulfillment with mary and Messiah jesus, so MUST use the virgin meaning there!
     
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