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No Sanhedrin in the KJV?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by franklinmonroe, Dec 22, 2011.

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  1. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    The Greek word συνέδριον (synedrion, Strong's #4892) occurs over 20 times in the New Testament. It can generically mean any kind of assembly. Yet, this word is never translated (or transliterated) as 'Sanhedrin' in the KJV; this word is always rendered "council" in the KJV. A few KJV examples --
    Now the chief priests, and elders, and all the council, sought false witness against Jesus, to put him to death; (Matthew 26:59)

    And the chief priests and all the council sought for witness against Jesus to put him to death; and found none. (Mark 14:55)

    Then gathered the chief priests and the Pharisees a council, and said, What do we? for this man doeth many miracles. (John 11:47)

    But when they had commanded them to go aside out of the council, they conferred among themselves, (Acts 4:15)

    And Paul, earnestly beholding the council, said, Men [and] brethren, I have lived in all good conscience before God until this day. (Acts 23:1)     ​
    Are there not any clear Scripture references to the official Sanhedrin? Why might the king's revisers want to avoid putting "Sanhedrin" into their text? Is "council" actually the best word to use in English for this Greek word in all cases? Should "council" really be considered a formal (literal) translation in those places where the Sanhedrin is obviously the entity being identified?
     
    #1 franklinmonroe, Dec 22, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 22, 2011
  2. matt wade

    matt wade Well-Known Member

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    Do you have any examples where you believe it should be translated as Sanhedrin. Anything you could post that would support your beliefs would be helpful as well.
     
    #2 matt wade, Dec 22, 2011
  3. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    My guess is that the KJV translators were simply cribbing Tyndale, Geneva et al. (as well as the Vulgate and Luther) in translating and not transliterating. Sanhedrin as an English word didn't appear until the late 16th century and may have been too new a coinage for the conservative KJV translators.
     
    #3 rsr, Dec 22, 2011
  4. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Yes, the five examples above (for starters). The NIV, Young, and some other versions do translate with "Sanhedrin" in those verses.
     
    #4 franklinmonroe, Dec 23, 2011
  5. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Would you say then that the king's revisers had no other choices in English other than "council" to put into their translation?

    I think it is rather rare that the KJV translators use the exact same English word so many times; they prefered a variety of words. Especially in light of the fact that the word is applied in at least two different situations: an unofficial deliberating group, contrasted with the official Jewish assembly (we do not even get a capital 'C' in the KJV).
     
    #5 franklinmonroe, Dec 23, 2011
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  6. marke

    marke New Member

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    Let's consider for a moment that God might not have been guiding the translators of the KJV in preserving His word. Then how was God's word preserved, and in what form, or was His word not preserved at all? Surely we will have to place some limited confidence in God's ability to have moved in somebody(s) to be able to give His word to His people today. Surely.
     
    #6 marke, Dec 23, 2011
  7. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    By your implication, the Bereans were demonstrating a lack of confidence in God's ability to move Paul when they checked his teaching against the Scriptures.
     
    #7 franklinmonroe, Dec 23, 2011
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