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Featured The NASB

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by desertjim, Jun 28, 2012.

  1. desertjim

    desertjim New Member

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    In a conversation with a gentleman yesterday, he told me that the NASB/ASB was written/published/edited by a woman.

    Can anyone confirm or deny? Or shed any light on why he volunteered that when I mentioned it. My version of choice is the KJV, the one the Lord used <smile>.

    Any info appreciated.
     
  2. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    The NASB pre-95 and the 95 itself was translated by a team. No woman was on the team.
    By ASB do you mean the American Standard Version (ASV) of 1901? It was also a team effort without the input of a woman.

    Welcome to the BB desertjim.
     
  3. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    You can go unto the Lockman Foundation to see the list of the scholars used to translate the NASB!

    IF there were any women on that team, so what? Does the bible state that God cannot use women as bible scholars, men only?

    i assume that you owna nd use a TR greek text? As greek would have been the version the Lord would have used!
     
  4. desertjim

    desertjim New Member

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    Of course! I have ALL the ORIGINAL texts, don't you :)?

    I simply asked a question based on one man's statement, but I doubt that God would choose a woman (if, in fact any people were chosen of God) to translate into the ASB/NASB. I say that based on the scriptures. I don't care who translated it, really, so it's a moot point to me. I was just curious because if I could validate it, I could harass someone :laugh:.

    As to the original manuscripts, no one can use that as an argument about anything. They don't exist.

    You may be an intellectual theologian. I'm not a theologian, just a man trying to learn all I can so that I may be more like Jesus. No one needs to be an intellectual to choose and follow God. If a man's/woman's relationship with the Lord is as it should be, all that person needs is the KJV and the Holy Spirit. Anyone can have both, so we are without excuse!

    In His Service,

    Jim
     
  5. MNJacob

    MNJacob Member

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    i assume that you owna nd use a TR greek text? As greek would have been the version the Lord would have used![/QUOTE]

    I respectfully disagree. His version, which would have been the original, would have been Hebrew. :)
     
  6. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Can we tell, based on the quoted references to scripture, if Jesus was using a Hebrew text or the LXX or some other written word. Were the scrolls used by Jews Hebrew or Greek. Jesus read one of them. He also used Aramaic words. Is the actual answer, we do not know whether Jesus read Greek or Hebrew or both, but we do know He read at least one language as recorded in scripture.
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I respectfully disagree. His version, which would have been the original, would have been Hebrew. :)[/QUOTE]

    or even Aramiac, as that was his 'native tongue!"

    Just used TR, as he stated KJV one Lord used!

    And KJV was based off that!
     
  8. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Yes, welcome Jim. At least you got one coherent response.
     
  9. jonathan.borland

    jonathan.borland Active Member

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    He probably mentioned it because in his tradition women are not supposed to learn more than men spiritually much less translate God's Holy Words from the Holy Original Trinitarian Bible Society's Textus Receptus.
     
  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    In doing a little internet reading, it seems Luke 4:16-20 presents a text that does not match either the Masoretic Hebrew text, nor the LXX, but comes closer to the LXX.
     
  11. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Why would it be a problem if there was a woman scholar on the translation team?
     
  12. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    He'd answer the question but figures it's much to complicated for you to understand. :tongue3:

    Rob
     
  13. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    must have been part of the curse God pronounced on eve, that none of her descendants would be smart enough to be able to read and translate off original texts!
     
  14. Oldtimer

    Oldtimer New Member

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    or even Aramiac, as that was his 'native tongue!"

    Just used TR, as he stated KJV one Lord used!

    And KJV was based off that![/QUOTE]

    As DesertJim stated, I'm just a layman trying to learn all our Lord is willing to reveal to me. In whatever manner He so chooses. That sometimes includes forums on some occasions as the Holy Spirit leads. While I disagree with some (varying degrees) that I read here, I've also learned a lot.

    That said, sometimes these debates can take surprising turns. This one is a good example.

    The debate over manuscripts and language that Jesus used when He walked and taught on this earth.

    Our all seeing and all knowing God didn't need manuscripts, nor was He restricted to one or more regional dialects. Why would the author of the truth and the creator of language(s) need anything penned by man? Except as a prop or something symbolic to help illustrate His point.

    Why would anyone think that when Jesus read from scrolls (to make His points) that He was reading from "originals", since Isaiah was written some 600-700 years before He was born. Especially, since He was reading a scroll in the synagogue at Nazareth.

    Why do we spend so much time debating, arguing, and sometimes even "fighting" over things where we don't have the one and only correct answer from God Himself? Do we suppose God "speaks" in the same language that was spoken before the Tower of Babel? Do we even know what language, if any, is spoken by the Godhead? (Father, Son, Holy Ghost) At most all that we can assume is that when Jesus spoke, those hearing him, were able to understand without a language barrier getting in the way.

    Yes, the books of the Bible were penned, at God's direction, in several languages. In all likelyhood, the native language of the person holding the writing instrument, be it quill or stylus. In the NT, the dialect(s) of the penmen of various manuscripts can be identified by students/scholars well versed in such matters.

    However, (correct me if I'm wrong) that doesn't tell us the "language" spoken by Jesus during His ministry. Only what was heard/understood by His listeners.

    Just a layman's 2 more cents.
     
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    As DesertJim stated, I'm just a layman trying to learn all our Lord is willing to reveal to me. In whatever manner He so chooses. That sometimes includes forums on some occasions as the Holy Spirit leads. While I disagree with some (varying degrees) that I read here, I've also learned a lot.

    That said, sometimes these debates can take surprising turns. This one is a good example.

    The debate over manuscripts and language that Jesus used when He walked and taught on this earth.

    Our all seeing and all knowing God didn't need manuscripts, nor was He restricted to one or more regional dialects. Why would the author of the truth and the creator of language(s) need anything penned by man? Except as a prop or something symbolic to help illustrate His point.

    Why would anyone think that when Jesus read from scrolls (to make His points) that He was reading from "originals", since Isaiah was written some 600-700 years before He was born. Especially, since He was reading a scroll in the synagogue at Nazareth.

    Why do we spend so much time debating, arguing, and sometimes even "fighting" over things where we don't have the one and only correct answer from God Himself? Do we suppose God "speaks" in the same language that was spoken before the Tower of Babel? Do we even know what language, if any, is spoken by the Godhead? (Father, Son, Holy Ghost) At most all that we can assume is that when Jesus spoke, those hearing him, were able to understand without a language barrier getting in the way.

    Yes, the books of the Bible were penned, at God's direction, in several languages. In all likelyhood, the native language of the person holding the writing instrument, be it quill or stylus. In the NT, the dialect(s) of the penmen of various manuscripts can be identified by students/scholars well versed in such matters.

    However, (correct me if I'm wrong) that doesn't tell us the "language" spoken by Jesus during His ministry. Only what was heard/understood by His listeners.

    Just a layman's 2 more cents.[/QUOTE]

    originals were written in either Koine greek/hebrew/Aramiac, and the native language of yeshua would have been Aramiac, so that was what the listeners would have heard!
     
  16. Oldtimer

    Oldtimer New Member

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    How do you know with 100% certainty what languages Jesus spoke? Don't forget that during that time period, many were bi-lingual due to the Greek influence. Do you know and can back it up with scripture that Jesus did not speak Greek?

    Plus, you didn't address my premise that God, the Creator of language(s) would be able to speak any/all of them fluently.
     
  17. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    The NASB is due for a revision.
     
  18. Scarlett O.

    Scarlett O. Moderator
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    I think you've been out in the desert too long.

    Welcome to the BB.
     
  19. Oldtimer

    Oldtimer New Member

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    A voice from the wilderness?
     
  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Great question. If women are not to exercise authority over men concerning spiritual things, then for a woman to work on a translation team, but not be the decision maker or supervisor, seems to me to be within the conservative view of scripture.

    The Bible has plenty of examples where women "influence" men and so to claim a woman cannot be part of a team seems to me to be unbiblical.
     
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