Featured What happened to the resurrected FLESHLY Body of Christ?

You that deny the Physical body of Jesus Christ was resurrected, handled and asserted to be "flesh" and not "spirit" and which the apostles saw with their own yes ascend into heaven and which Paul says "the man" Jesus Christ is still in heaven - tell us what happened to that physical resurrected body??

Tell us how death and sin are not victorious if that body perished someway?

 

I don't see how Seve can avoid the same consequence as he has exactly the same mindset.

 

You simply do not understand the consequences of your own position. Your next quotation makes it clear you neither understand the scriptures or the consequences of your own position.

884600Try to debate my position.... not your own made up story and distorted view of where I stand.[/QUOTE]

Psalm 110:1 has completely refuted your whole christology. You state your own position by the bold letters in your quotation by which you embrace Moriah's position that says:


"Christ was NOT in the FLESH after his resurrection but Glorified Body"

1. The body placed in the tomb did not see corruption.

2. The cloth used to wrap his body was found empty of his body

3. He claimed the body after his resurrection was FLESH:

Lu 24:39 Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have.

4. This body contained the wounds in his feet and hands and side and so it was his pre-burial body raised from the dead.

5. This is the body they beheld for 40 days - Acts 1:1-8

6. The angels said that "THIS SAME JESUS" which they beheld ascend into heaven would come again just like they had "seen" him go away - Acts 1:11

7. Paul tells Timothy that "THE MAN" Jesus is in heaven as their mediator right now - 1 Tim. 2:5

8. However, you are right about one thing! That resurrected body of flesh was glorified - meaning:

1. Incorruptible
2. Power
3. Honorable
4. Immortal


9. If Christ's body in the grave was not raised and glorified then death has the victory and the atonement is in vain - 1 Cor. 15:13-19

10. Those who deny the body of flesh was not raised and glorified are "false witnesses" of Christ - 1 Cor. 15:15

11. The resurrected body of FLESH is the "firstfruits" of the resurrection of all to come.

12. The term "raised" and "resurrection" cannot have any sane application to anything other than the body that went down into the ground.

 

I suppose he had "feathers" and "wings" too?

Ps 91:4 He shall cover thee with his feathers, and under his wings shalt thou trust: his truth shall be thy shield and buckler.

Ps 17:8 ¶ Keep me as the apple of the eye, hide me under the shadow of thy wings,

Ps 61:4 I will abide in thy tabernacle for ever: I will trust in the covert of thy wings. Selah.


I suppose his body is so large that heaven is his throne and the earth is his footstool too? huh?

Isa 66:1 Thus saith the LORD, The heaven is my throne, and the earth is my footstool: where is the house that ye build unto me? and where is the place of my rest?


You are simply ignorant of metaphorical language.

 

The New Testament says that Jesus is the "image" of the "INVISIBLE" God:

Col. 1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

This is the same "image" we are created in (Gen. 1:26).

Hence, neither our bodies or the body provided in the incarnation for Christ provide that image because His image is "INVISIBLE" whereas our bodies are very visible.

That image has to do with the holiness and righteousness of God which image is renewed in us by new birth:

Col. 3:10 And have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him:

This "invisible" image also refers to the reasoning power in addition to a moral image.

Neither our physical body or the physical body of Christ is the "invisible" image of God.

 

Again, Seve is better at personal insults than he is at theological or Biblical interpetation.

The text does NOT say he is the second "man" from heaven as his humanity did not come from heaven but from the womb of Mary. He is the Lord from heaven who became a man and dwelt among us.

He is called the "second" man with respect to Adam who was the first man:

45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.
47 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.

The order demands that Christ became a man "AFTERWARD" rather than before Adam was created and thus refers to the incarnation rather than some fictional idea of a human Christ before the creation of the world.

 

The normal personal attack demonstrating a lack of substance

Seve does the very same thing with this text as he does with Psalms 110:1. He simply changes the text to make it fit his theology.
Seve is a person who does not let God's Word stand in the way of his false doctrines. He simply changes the Word of God to suit himself.

This text does NOT say that Christ is "the second man from heaven" but "the second man is the LORD from heaven". It is the Lord from heaven who came "afterward" and became the "second Adam" through the incarnation.

The use of "second" has already been contextually established as a contrast between the "first" which is Adam and then "AFTERWARD" the "second" which refers to the incarnation as the incarnation follows the "first" Adam. Hence, "first" and "second" refer to the CHRONOLOGICAL ORDER between Adam and Christ as seen by the contrast of "first" versus "Last."

45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.
47 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.

Paul explicitly denies that Christ as the second man preceded Adam but came "AFTERWARD." It is just that simple and that clear.

Now the phrase "is the Lord from heaven" defines who it is that came to earth and became a "man" through the incarnation that followed the "second Adam." The fact he is said to have not come first but came "afterward" demands that the incarnation is how The Lord from heaven became the "second Adam."

The terms "first" and "second" are chronological terms as is "first" versus "last" showing that Christ chronologically came "AFTERWARDS" rather than BEFORE the first Adam. It is the "Lord" that came from heaven to BECOME the Second Adam.

The "second man" IS "the Lord" and it is "the Lord" which came "from heaven" to become the "last" Adam through the incarnation. Absolute proof this refers to the incarnation is the denial that the spiritual came first:

46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.

The term "afterward" defines the time when the "spiritual" man occurred in time relationship to the appearance of the "first" man Adam.

 

If Christ came as a "man" from heaven instead of coming as "the Lord from heaven" to become man, then Paul would not have said the spiritual was not first but the earthly was first:

46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.


I really don't see how anyone can deny that Paul uses the term "second" in this context in any other way than in contrast to "first" which describes Adam in the garden. Adam chronologically preceded Christ in the role of a representative man. He is described as "Adam" in his redemptive representative capacity just as the first Adam acted in a representative capacity for all mankind. This representative capacity began with the incarnation and taking upon himself the nature of man. This is precisely what John 1:14 demands - he BECAME man by tabernacling in the flesh among men.

 

He claims that Jesus was the first created being before the creation of the world who was created to be the VISIBLE God called JHVH and no other Being is properly called JHVH but Christ. Thus he was created as a visible glorified man before Genesis 1:1. This is why he is arguing that JHVH "Lord" was the "first man" that came from heaven. He denies this refers to the incarnation but rather this occured prior to the incarnation and is seen in the theophanies in the Old Testament. This is why he interprets the anthromorphic langauge as literal decriptions of JHVH because He believes JHVH is a LITERAL man but only glorified.

 

However, such passages as Isaiah 44:6 and Psalms 110:1 repudiates his theory that the name JHVH is used only of Christ. In Psalm 110:1 the Son of David (Christ) is called "Adonai" ("Lord") who is to sit at the right hand of YHVH who sits on the throne. This prophecy about where he is to be seated was fulfilled at ascension according to Peter in Acts 2.

I Corinthians 15:44-46 repudiates his theory that Christ came as a "man" from heaven before the incarnation. Rather it is the "Lord" who came from heaven to become the "Second" Adam through the incarnation. The term "Adam" applied to Christ refers to his Redemptive representative mission through taking upon himself the body prepared by YHVH Father (Heb. 10:5-8) at the incarnation (Jn. 1:14).

The fact that Paul denies the "spiritual" was "first" totally repudiates that Christ existed as the spiritual man in heaven before Adam in the garden but Paul says he came "AFTERWARD" or after Adam. This completely repudiates his whole view of Christology.