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Featured Translations Why Are They Different And Can I Trust Them?"

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Deacon, Oct 24, 2013.

  1. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Translations Why Are They Different And Can I Trust Them?" [LINK]

    I thought this looked interesting enough to post here.
    Good basic stuff for those interested in learning.

    Rob
     
  2. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    But in the eyes of many,especially ESV proponents --Mounce went over to the dark side --as a translator for the NIV!
     
  3. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    niv decent translation, has it definite purpose, just NOT same as say the Nasb has though!
     
  4. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    The NIV and NASB are not the same! I think you're on to something --they don't read the same. LOL!
     
  5. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Just was saying that the Niv best suited for those who have either just been saved, or else have not read Bible on a regular basis!
     
  6. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Yeah,I suppose that's why Bible scholars like Rod Decker and D.A. Carson among others, use the NIV! LOL!
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Would think many others though would prefer to use versions such as the Nasb/Nkjv though for "serious studies!"

    And the esv is now seen as being the Bible for calvinists, so can't be that bad, eh?
     
  8. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    No harm in using the NLTse for serious study too (that means not alone).
    I'm a Calvinist,but are Calvinists always right in every area? Like I have said many times before --the ESV needs a complete overhaul. Until the translators actually commit to that project instead of the slow incremental approach --the ESV will not be as ready for prime time as it has been made out to be.
     
  9. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    what about it is so lacking though?

    To me, it still should be tightened down and made "more literal!"
     
  10. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Why do you ask that question when I have just told you in the post you are responding to?

    Oh, even more unreadable. That should go over well.
     
  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Among those wishing and wanting for a more accurate version to study off from, yes!
     
  12. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    One could "study off" an interlinear then.Good luck with that.I think an actual translation in the language of the people is more desirable. Remember,the more literal,the less readable. Is that what you want? I prefer a more vernacular version.
     
  13. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Come on Rob. You started this thread --time for you to add your wisdom.
     
  14. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    perhaps less readable, but more reliable to what was originally written down for us to learn and observe!
     
  15. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Whatever text I pick up is more than adequate for my spiritual needs.

    God has blessed me with the resources to tickle my intellectual needs too.
    More often my intellect is fed before my spiritual self.

    I am a multi-version user and understand the benefits and shortcomings of the versions I read. The website I offered provides one way a person can learn about them.

    Rob
     
  16. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    In ALL English translations we are talking about "degrees of dynamic equivalency". Some translate as formally as possible; others try to convert the idiom of Hebrew/Greek into modern idiom; still others simply try to translate the 'thought' into modern words.

    ALL use it to some degree. If you say only ONE translation is 'truly literal', then you are mistaken. 'God forbid'.
     
  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    understand that cannot be any version that would be 'fully literal" to original sources texts used, but some are indeed more so than others!
     
  18. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    "Literal" would not be the correct word methinks. "Formal Equivalent" seems better.

    For example: I am translating Philippians (from all 5500 text/fragments) as I preach verse by verse.

    1:8(AV) For God is my record, how greatly I long after you all, in the bowels of Iesus Christ.

    Greek word σπλάγχνοις means intestines/bowel so the AV translators gave the Greek the formal equivalent "bowel" in English.

    Why? Greeks felt that the center of love/compassion/longing was NOT in the "heart" like we in English do today; they felt it was a movement of the bowels.

    That sounds funny to our ears, eh?


    Understanding Paul was using σπλάγχνοις as a METAPHOR, another "literal" translation of it could be "compassion" or "feeling" or even "moving" (although that, linked with bowel, becomes odd-sounding).

    Literal = any use of figure of speech, including metaphor, simile, hyperbole, synecdoche et al

     
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Formal seems like abtter term to use for the translation philosophy....

    8 God can testify how I long for all of you with the affection of Christ Jesus.
    Phil 1:8 niv
    8 For God is my witness, how I yearn for you all with the affection of Christ Jesus.
    esv Phil 1:8

    8 For God is my witness, how deeply I miss all of you with the affection of Christ Jesus.
    HCSB Phil 1:8

    For God is my witness, how I long for you all with the [f]affection of Christ Jesus.
    Nasb Phil 1:8

    Interesting that regardless whether DE/Mediating/Formal, all rendered that verse about the same!
     
  20. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    What is your distinction between the latter two?
     
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