What Happened to the People?

The ten commandments

 

RD2, just read Romans 1:18-2:16.

We have no need to reinvent the wheel --it's right there in the Word of God.

 

HUH ?!?

I think you need a little history.


Those who were building the Tower of Babel had no knowledge of any "Jewish Laws", just like Abraham had no such knowledge

There was no such thing as a "Jewish Laws" until about 500-600 years after the Tower of Babel

The Tower of Babel was most likely a ziggurat which were common in the Mesopotamian valley - Akkad (Accad), Assyria, Babylon (Babel), and Ur, where Abraham came from. They were tall, towering structures with a temple on top, thought to connect the heavens and the earth. Most would have a height of around 300 feet


The Tower of Babel incident would have been in the date range of about 2,500b.c. to 2,000b.c., between the flood and Abraham, probably closer to Abraham's time. This is the time of the ziggurats.

If you add up the bible genealogical years, Shem would have been alive when Abraham was born, and Noah would have been dead only a couple of years


Look at Genesis 10:6-11

6 sons of Ham were Cush and Mizraim and Put and Canaan.

7 The sons of Cush were Seba and Havilah and Sabtah and Raamah and Sabteca; and the sons of Raamah were Sheba and Dedan.

8 Now Cush became the father of Nimrod; he became a mighty one on the earth.

9 He was a mighty hunter before the Lord; therefore it is said, “Like Nimrod a mighty hunter before the Lord.”

10 The beginning of his kingdom was Babel and Erech and Accad and Calneh, in the land of Shinar.

11 From that land he went forth into Assyria, and built Nineveh and Rehoboth-Ir and Calah...


To say these people had no knowledge of God is way off the mark. As they migrated, Nimrod became powerful and began his "kingdom" with Babel. He was the great-grandson of Noah. Canaan was the grandson of Noah, and Nimrod's uncle.


Abraham most likely was alive during the building of the Tower of Babel, and was among those scattered.

If they were all scattered FROM Babel, then that means all the descendants listed in Genesis 10 are the result of that scattering, in the same time as Abraham

Gen 10:5 (sons of Japheth)
From these the coastlands of the nations were separated into their lands, every one according to his language, according to their families, into their nations.

Gen 10:21
These are the sons of Ham, according to their families, according to their languages, by their lands, by their nations.

Gen 10:31 (of Shem)
These are the sons of Shem, according to their families, according to their languages, by their lands, according to their nations.


Then this:

Genesis 23:20 - After this, Abraham buried Sarah his wife in the cave of the field at Machpelah facing Mamre (that is, Hebron) in the land of Canaan.


So Noah's grandson settled the land of Canaan, probably after Abraham was born, and Abraham buys a field there to bury his wife.


"Ancestors" living back in Babel ???

Don't try to tell us that these people know nothing about God. They were only a couple of generations removed form Noah himself living on the earth. That's why ALL of these civilizations have very similar flood accounts


BTW, The Law came about 430 years after God's promise to Abraham (Gal 3:17)


As Romans 1:18-32 says, They knew God, but acknowledge Him no longer. They BECAME fools, they EXCHANGED the glory of the immortal God for an image, they EXCHANGED the truth for a lie, they were given over to a reprobate mind

And that is the same for all men. Every man is without excuse, because each one goes his own way

Isiaiah 53:6 - All of us like sheep have gone astray, Each of us has turned to his own way; But the Lord has caused the iniquity of us all To fall on Him.

Proverbs 21:2 - Every man’s way is right in his own eyes, But the Lord weighs the hearts.

Proverbs 30:12 - There is a kind who is pure in his own eyes, Yet is not washed from his filthiness.

 

These guys acted upon their sin nature, that nature that was passed upon by their first father Adam.


By what standard? God's. If Christ doesn't intercede for any of us, we can never meet that standard. But being in Christ, we can....

 

???

Do you have any scripture to support such a fancy notion?

I mean one which actually says what you say. Without scripture, it's just a philosophy, brother

 

righteousdude2

Dude...we read it and answered it...the ten commandments....see here-
from A Baptist Catechism with Commentary;

The Moral Law is epitomized in the Decalogue or Ten Commandments,
and answers to the law ontologically embedded in man’s nature at creation as
the image–bearer of God (Rom. 2:11–16).
The Moral Law was neither formulated nor instituted at Sinai; rather, it was codified and epitomized at Sinai in the Decalogue. The Moral Law expresses the moral self–consistencyor absolute righteous character of the triune God.
The Moral Law was
codified as part of the progressively–revealed redemptive purpose (Rom.
5:20–21). [All post–Fall Divine revelation is essentially redemptive in nature].
The Moral Law was revealed to Moses and given to Israel in a codified and
epitomized or summary form. Israel, as the covenant people of God, formed
the repository of the Divinely revealed and codified Moral Law until the
gospel took the true knowledge of God and his moral self–consistency to all
the nations of the earth.

As Rippon answered....all men will be judged by the ten commandments...there was a time when men everywhere had a knowledge of God and His law, they turned from the true knowledge to idols, and were scattered in unbelief....they perished in their sins.

yes they were;
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;

19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.

20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
22 Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,

All men are responsible to keep the law perfectly.

 

Code of Hammurabi was in effect in Mesopotamia back to 1772 B.C.

 

Romans 3:23 and 5:12

 

I don't see "sin nature" in either of those passages. Which translation are you using?

 

To answer the question directly, we don't know what happened to the people at the time of Babel (went to heaven or hell...?), because the bible doesn't give every detail about every person that has ever existed.

We do know that Melchizedek was high priest of God and the King of Salem and lived during the time of Abraham.... so there was someone worshipping God and teaching about God.

It would probably be safe to say that those to whom God revealed Himself to and believed were saved by God and those to whom He didn't reveal Himself remained in their lost state.

As far as the genealogies go...my understanding is that the genealogies don't necessarily contain every person in a specific line... only those whose importance is such that they would warrant a mention. That makes "calculating" dates based on the genealogies problematic at best.

 

I will try to be as concise as I possibly can, so that I don't cover you up with a bunch of "clutter"...I am prone to do that, so please bear with me...

"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:"(Romans 5:12 KJV)


Here in this verse, you can see that Paul was addressing Adam, the first Adam. Adam not only ushered in sin, but also death, by his disobedience. For the wages of sin is death(Romans 6:23a). Now, I know that many on here say that we die due to the consequences of Adam's fall. How is it then that babies, whilst still in the womb die? How can they die w/o ever sinning? I know the pat answer is "they die due to the curse that fell upon all mankind". Yet, is not sin part of the curse? So Adam ushered in not only sin, but death, a curse, condemnation, reprobation, et al. All of this fell upon us, we being his prodigy.


Christ took upon Himself our curse, our condemnation, our guilt, and bore it on the cross. What the first Adam brought forth to all mankind, the last Adam, Jesus Christ, rectified for His sheep.

 

Romans 2:12-15
For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;


(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.

For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:

Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another

In other words there has never been a period of time when God has not written His laws on men's hearts. Every generation has rules and laws that are based on the laws of God even when they do not have the law of God in their mist or have ever heard of such. Some call it our conscience, but everyone knows at least in part that certain things are right and certain things are wrong. Do the wrong and be judged and everyone has knowingly done wrong.

So in every generation every person at some point breaks those laws and knows it and God will judge them for breaking them.