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Featured Three days and three nights

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by rstrats, Oct 23, 2012.

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  1. Gerhard Ebersoehn

    Gerhard Ebersoehn Active Member
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    You have been hunting for an 'answer' to this silly and senseless 'question' of yours. You and it are simply absurd; no, not absurd, because you are beyond absurd.
     
    #141 Gerhard Ebersoehn, Apr 29, 2015
  2. Darrell C

    Darrell C Well-Known Member
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    lol...right. How long will you be stuck on this?

    The verse offered is first century. We know it had to include at least two nights and at least parts of three days.

    That meets the criteria you demand.

    Enjoy your thread.


    Refer to my previous post and show how anything you say here is relevant to what I said. lol

    I don't need to prove it a figure of speech because i it should have been clear in the previous post that both three days and three days and nights was used to describe the duration the Lord would be in, dare I say it?

    The heart of the earth.

    ;)

    We could argue that the absence of reference doesn't negate the nights, but why would we? We are told what day He was crucified on, and if I am not mistaken, that has been addressed already and I have no interest in going through that with the OP...again. If we pinpoint the day...no need to get mired down in nonessentials, right?

    If you see something in my timing you disagree with, let me know. Be glad to look at it with you.


    God bless.
     
    #142 Darrell C, Apr 29, 2015
  3. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    You are one insincere man. If Sunday was the Third, Saturday the Second and Friday the First, there is NO room for Day zero.

    Look at the creation account. The first day of creation is .....the first day
    In Joshua 6, read verse 14. The SECOND day was the.....second day of encompassing Jericho which means the first day was the day before. You don't have a day zero

    Perfect example is Exodus
    Exodus 19:10-11 (ASV)
    10 And Jehovah said unto Moses, Go unto the people, and sanctify them to-day and to-morrow, and let them wash their garments, 11 and be ready against the third day; for the third day Jehovah will come down in the sight of all the people upon mount Sinai

    So 'to-day' is the FIRST day of sanctification, 'to-morrow' is the SECOND day, and the day after tomorrow is the THIRD day.

    If Sunday was the third day, Saturday was the second and Friday was the day of crucifixion
     
    #143 vooks, Apr 29, 2015
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 29, 2015
  4. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    I was addressing rstrats his hunt for an extra-biblical usage of 'three days and three nights' is irrelevant and whatever purpose it is supposed to serve can be demonstrated from the scriptures
     
    #144 vooks, Apr 29, 2015
  5. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    30 A.D.
    Wed. Mar. 22, 0*
    Wed. Mar. 22, 8 p.m.
    Fri. Mar. 24
    Sat. Mar. 25
    Fri. Apr. 7
    31 A.D.
    Fri. Mar. 23, 5 a.m.
    Tues. Apr. 10, 2 p.m.
    Wed. Apr. 11
    Thurs. Apr.12
    Wed. Apr. 25
    32 A.D.
    Sat. Mar. 22, 11 a.m.
    Sat. Mar. 29, 10 p.m.**
    Mon. Mar. 31
    Tues. Apr. 1
    Mon. Apr. 14
    33 A.D.
    Sun. Mar. 22, 5 p.m.
    Fri. Mar. 20, 9 a.m.
    Fri. Apr. 17, 9 p.m.    **
    Sat. Mar. 21
    Sun. Apr. 19
    Sun. Mar. 22
    Mon. Apr. 20
    Sat. Apr. 4
    Sun. May 3



    None of the days around 30-33 AD for Passover was Friday.

    If we count 173,880 days from Nissan month of 446 BC we reach 31 AD, resulting in Wednesday April 25.

    But If we count it from 445 BC we may reach Monday of April 14, 32 BC


    Eliyahu
     
    #145 Eliyahu, Apr 30, 2015
  6. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    Simple logic
    1. THIRD DAY IS THE DAY AFTER TOMORROW
    2. SUNDAY WAS THE THIRD DAY SINCE PASSION

    More proof that the THIRD day is the day after tomorrow
    Leviticus 7:16-17 (ASV)
    16 But if the sacrifice of his oblation be a vow, or a freewill-offering, it shall be eaten on the day that he offereth his sacrifice; and on the morrow that which remaineth of it shall be eaten: 17 but that which remaineth of the flesh of the sacrifice on the third day shall be burnt with fire.


    Luke 24:21 (ASV)
    21 But we hoped that it was he who should redeem Israel. Yea and besides all this, it is now the third day since these things came to pass.

    Luke 24:45-46 (ASV)
    45 Then opened he their mind, that they might understand the scriptures; 46 and he said unto them, Thus it is written, that the Christ should suffer, and rise again from the dead the third day;
     
    #146 vooks, Apr 30, 2015
  7. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    Darrell C,
    re: "...right."

    So you agree that you haven't shown any writing.


    re: "How long will you be stuck on this?"

    Until someone provides writing from the first century or before which shows a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights.



    re: "The verse offered is first century. We know it had to include at least two nights and at least parts of three days.That meets the criteria you demand."

    I don't see how Mark 8:31 is an example of writing that shows the use of a phrase which states a specific number of daytimes and/or a specific nunber of night times for an event where at least a part of each one of the daytimes and at least a part of each one of the night times couldn't have been involved. I wonder if you might explain why you think that it does?



    re: "Enjoy your thread."

    Thank you - I'm trying.
     
    #147 rstrats, Apr 30, 2015
  8. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,
    re: "SUNDAY WAS THE THIRD DAY SINCE PASSION"

    What would the first day since the passion have been? If I said that today, Thursday, was the first day since I had a tooth pulled, to what day would I be referring?


    re: "I was addressing rstrats his hunt for an extra-biblical usage of 'three days and three nights'"

    Doesn't need to be extra-biblical. Scripture will be fine.
     
    #148 rstrats, Apr 30, 2015
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 30, 2015
  9. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    Friday of course!

    Your tooth would have been plucked TODAY. If I took you to school tomorrow Friday, what's your FIRST day in school, Friday or Saturday?

    There is enough biblical proof that the third day is the day after tomorrow which obviously means tomorrow is the second day and of course today is the first day. Working backward means that the first day is the day before yesterday.

    Examples;
    Exodus 19:10-11 (ESV)
    10 the Lord said to Moses, “Go to the people and consecrate them today and tomorrow, and let them wash their garments 11 and be ready for the third day. For on the third day the Lord will come down on Mount Sinai in the sight of all the people

    Leviticus 19:6 (ESV)
    6 It shall be eaten the same day you offer it or on the day after, and anything left over until the third day shall be burned up with fire


    DO YOU AGREE WITH ME THAT THE THIRD DAY IS THE DAY AFTER TOMORROW?

    Supposing your kid bro goes missing. He is found two hours later. An hour AFTER he is found, you are still busy asking everyone the color of the shirt he had on when he went missing because it is important in finding him. you are so furious that nobody can tell the color of the shirt. That perfectly describes you.:laugh::laugh:
     
    #149 vooks, Apr 30, 2015
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 30, 2015
  10. Darrell C

    Darrell C Well-Known Member
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    I think your presentation of Exodus 19:10-11 definitely closes the case.

    Outstanding.


    God bless.
     
    #150 Darrell C, Apr 30, 2015
  11. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,
    re: "Friday of course!"

    After your reply, I asked 7 friends/acquaintances (none of which were in each other's presence): "If I said that today, Thursday, was the first day since I had a tooth pulled, to what day would I be referring?" The answer was unanimous: "Wednesday". So you seem to be a minority in your thinking.
    　


    re: "If I took you to school tomorrow Friday, what's your FIRST day in school, Friday or Saturday?"

    Friday. But I fail to see your analogy.
    　



    re: "DO YOU AGREE WITH ME THAT THE THIRD DAY IS THE DAY AFTER TOMORROW?"

    Yes, if the first day is today.



    re: "That perfectly describes you."

    Again, I fail to see the relevance of your analogy.
     
    #151 rstrats, May 1, 2015
  12. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    Darrell C,
    re: "I think your presentation of Exodus 19:10-11 definitely closes the case."


    Exactly what do you think the "case" is with regard to the request in the OP?
     
    #152 rstrats, May 1, 2015
  13. Darrell C

    Darrell C Well-Known Member
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    No clue...it keeps changing.


    God bless.
     
    #153 Darrell C, May 1, 2015
  14. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    Darrell C,
    re: "No clue...it keeps changing."

    The request in the OP asks for documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didn’t include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights? That request is clearified in post #36 and further clearified in post #131. What is there about that request that causes you to say that you have no clue?
     
    #154 rstrats, May 1, 2015
  15. Darrell C

    Darrell C Well-Known Member
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    The verse I quoted is a first century statement that shows that the Lord's meaning does not have to include three literal days and nights, as it was said here...


    Matthew 12:40

    King James Version (KJV)

    40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.


    Here it is again...


    Mark 8:31

    King James Version (KJV)

    31 And he began to teach them, that the Son of man must suffer many things, and be rejected of the elders, and of the chief priests, and scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again.


    John 2:18-21

    King James Version (KJV)

    18 Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things?

    19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.

    20 Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?

    21 But he spake of the temple of his body.





    It is by comparing His statements that we don't have to quibble. It could be argued that He meant four days, because, after all, He does say after three days...doesn't he?

    ;)

    So how does this not answer the question? You will have to be more specific as to my error for me to answer beyond that.


    God bless.
     
    #155 Darrell C, May 1, 2015
  16. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    Darrell C,
    re: "The verse I quoted is a first century statement that shows that the Lord's meaning does not have to include three literal days and nights, as it was said here...So how does this not answer the question?"


    Many sixth day of the week crucifixion advocates say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language. In order for them to legitimately assert that it was common, they would have to know of examples that show that it indeed was a common way of referring to elapsed periods of time, i.e., where a forecasted daytime and/or a night time could be counted when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time was actually involved. I don't see where you have provided such examples.
     
    #156 rstrats, May 1, 2015
  17. Gerhard Ebersoehn

    Gerhard Ebersoehn Active Member
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    The crux of your arguing simply is, Is the phrase "three days and three nights" idiomatic?

    It is not. It is plainly literal. End.


     
    #157 Gerhard Ebersoehn, May 1, 2015
  18. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    Gerhard Ebersoehn,
    re: "The crux of your arguing simply is, Is the phrase "three days and three nights" idiomatic?"


    No, that is not the crux. The crux is having those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language to provide examples proving that it is common.

    BTW, what do you think it is that I am arguing?
     
    #158 rstrats, May 1, 2015
  19. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    They clearly are unthinking lot

    You wouldn't see it if it knocked your teeth off.
    If they took Jesus to Calvary (killed him) on Friday, what's the FIRST day they killed him? Friday or Saturday?
    　

    Working in reverse.
    Do you also agree that if today is the THIRD day, the FIRST day is the day before yesterday?

    Specifically if Sunday is the THIRD day, what would be the FIRST day?



    You don't need extrabiblical literature on 'three days and three nights' to prop your weak position.

    In any case, throwing the case back at you, do you know of the application of the phrase in a literal sense outside scriptures in the first century?:thumbs:

    We have shown beyond doubt that the time referred to by the phrase in the gospels is much less than time covered in a literal 3 days and 3 nights meaning the phrase MUST have been idiomatic. Show us application elsewhere that it is NOT idiomatic
     
    #159 vooks, May 1, 2015
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  20. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    The crux actually is you to prove that as applied to the death and resurrection of Jesus it can't possibly be idiomatic
     
    #160 vooks, May 2, 2015
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