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Footnotes in Translations: Good or Bad?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by jbh28, Sep 20, 2010.

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  1. God's_Servant

    God's_Servant New Member

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    It is a poor argument to say we must include a certain rendering or textual variation due to its effect on doctrine. It can reaffirm a teaching as much as it wants, but it doesn't matter if the reading is an inaccurate translation or if the passage is not original.
     
  2. jonathan.borland

    jonathan.borland Active Member

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    No, but certainly doctrine could have played a part in the creation of variant readings, in which case an understanding of scribal motivations can help determine which reading is original. In this particular case (Matt 1:25), heavyweight textual critics (Mill, Wettstein, Griesbach) have accepted the traditional reading based on the probability of doctrinal motivations to remove the words rather than a temptation to add the words from Luke 2:7.

    Jonathan C. Borland
     
  3. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    If one were motivated to remove these words for doctrinal reasons, why would they leave the same exact words in the same sense in another verse? The scribes would be really quite stupid, IMO.
     
  4. RAdam

    RAdam New Member

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    So all translators from 1500 forward have done what modern translators have done using modern textual criticism techniques? Really? Consider the quote you gave from the NIV translators. They assume that because a word was not in the older manuscripts they have that the TR inserted them from another text. Is that science? Is that sound practice? Who says the older manuscripts didn't leave the word out and it should have been in there? Nobody can say that because nobody saw the original manuscripts, and there is the great failing of textual criticism.
     
  5. Baptist4life

    Baptist4life Well-Known Member
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    AMEN!!!!! :applause::applause::applause::applause:
     
  6. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Really? I am saved coming up on forty years and my faith has never been affected by a footnote. Never. Not once.

    What kind of faith is affected by a translator's footnote?
     
  7. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Anybody had their faith affected by a footnote?

    Those poor ignorant KJV translators thought they were essential. I wonder if their faith was affected?
     
    #47 NaasPreacher (C4K), Sep 23, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 23, 2010
  8. jbh28

    jbh28 Active Member

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    What do you have to say about the KJV doing the very same thing. In Luke 10:22 they put a note that says, "Many ancient copies adde these words, And turning to his Disciples he said." They omit the text of "And turning to his Disciples he said" and place it into footnotes. Also in Luke 17:36 you find this note, "This 36. verse is wanting in most of the Greek copies." Is the KJV causing "doubt" in the Word of God? Is it causing "confusion"?

    My point to this thread was that KJV only advocates are quick to put down a practice of a modern version all while ignoring the fact that the KJV does this as well.

    ( I noticed the Radam now has entire verse instead of text. But what difference does that make. Verses are not inspired but added later. When dealing with text. Part of a verse or a whole verse is the same importance.)
     
  9. jbh28

    jbh28 Active Member

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    I'm not sure what this has to do with the OP unless you are referring to them putting it into footnotes. First note, the word "firstborn" implies that there are other children, but I would hope there is more evidence that just that. As you said, they are named, so the point is mute. With or without "firstborn" the fact that Jesus had siblings is proven from Scripture. Also in another gospel, the parallel verse with the word "firstborn" is there.(EDIT: Luke 2:7 ESV And she gave birth to her firstborn son and wrapped him in swaddling cloths and laid him in a manger, because there was no place for them in the inn.") So again, doctrinal issues with this verse are 0. There is a textual variant in this passage. Most modern versions put the word "firstborn" in footnotes saying that some manuscripts have "firstborn" in the text. They let the reader know that the variant exists. Ignoring the variant doesn't make it go away. Pretending it doesn't exists is being dishonest in my opinion. Does it change any doctrine? absolutely not.

    Again, this thread is over footnotes and not doctrinal issues of variants. If you would like to have one, I'm all for it. But this thread is over footnotes and whether they are good to have or bad to have.
     
    #49 jbh28, Sep 23, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 23, 2010
  10. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Agreed. Lets stay on topic. Further deviations will be deleted.
     
  11. RAdam

    RAdam New Member

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    I didn't change my stance, you simply misread what I posted early on.

    You say verse are man-made. Ok, let's discuss this. Verse typically follow the traditional format. I've never seen an english translation that had verses in it and did not contain 39 verses in Romans 8, for instance. Traditionally the 7th verse of 1 John 5 was the so called comma. The NIV took the whole thing out because they felt it wasn't authentic enough for inclusion. Then they took verse 8 and split it up into two verses so that they still had the traditional number of verses in 1 John 5. Then they took the traditional verse 7 and placed it in the footnote.
     
  12. jbh28

    jbh28 Active Member

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    Again, the beginning of verse 7 and 8 are the same. What grounds you say they removed all of verse 7 and put 8 in 7? None. It's just made up. Also, verse numbers are not inspired, so the point is mute anyway. And you did change. You said for me to show you where the KJV has text not included and put it in footnotes. That I showed you in the OP of this thread. Now you say entire verses. But that is totally irrelevant as verse numbers were added later by men and have no baring on anything but helping us find sections in the Bible. My point is the both modern versions and the KJV have textual footnotes(both "adding" and "subtracting" what is in the text) and putting the alternate in footnotes. The KJV does this in Luke 10:22 and Luke 17:36. the first one by putting the text in footnotes, the second by putting into the text. Whether they take part of a verse or all of a verse is irrelevant. Verses have no baring on doctrine nor interpretation.
     
  13. Steven2006

    Steven2006 New Member

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    That view completely contradicts the views of the KJV translators. They felt that even the worst translation was still the word of God. By them going out of their way to make that point seems to imply that they felt that attacks any translations would greater negatively "affect faith" in the Word of God.

    And this goes both ways, I have seen others attack the KJV pointing out verses with "errors", pointing out that the Holy Spirit is referred to as "it", and so fourth. Myself personally (we preach from the KJV exclusively in my church) it always bugs me slightly that Jesus when referred to as Him, He etc is not capitalized in the KJV. However I don't go around pointing it out, or act like the KJV demeans Him in any way, it is just how they did it back then I guess. Nothing more nothing less.

    IMHO all the effort that goes into searching for a select few verses used to attack the Word of God regardless of translation does far more to negatively effect faith. There is nothing wrong with anyone stating they prefer to use any one translation for their study or preaching. However once that crosses over to spending time and energy for the sole reason of attacking another translation, it changes to something that IMHO grieves the Holy Spirit, and time that could be much better spent trying to edifying Gods word instead of undermining it.

    The way this entire version controversy has evolved over the last fifty years is just saddening. I wonder what a difference it would have made if all the time, money and effort that has gone towards it, instead would have gone towards outreach instead. I guess only God knows that answer.
     
    #53 Steven2006, Sep 23, 2010
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  14. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    My first Bible after I was saved was the RSV. I lapped it up and never lost my faith. I did ask for and get a Scofield Reference KJV for Christmas that year because I wanted the same Bible our preacher used. Scofield's notes "shook my faith" more than the footnotes in any Bible since has!
     
  15. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    I'll have to admit, the concept that footnotes have the power to affect one's faith is a new one to me.

    I agree with the KJV translating team as they gave us their magnificent work - marginal notes are vital to help us understand the sense of the manuscripts.

    This really concerns me. How strong is a faith that can be affected by a translator's notes?
     
    #55 NaasPreacher (C4K), Sep 23, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 23, 2010
  16. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    As to footnotes- "if it was good enough for the KJV translators to include them and be honest about their translation, then it's good enough for me!".

    Many of the verses that we debate about today were more than likely footnotes in some saint's Bible!
     
  17. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    KJV:For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
    8And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

    NIV: For there are three that testify: 8the Spirit, the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement.

    You continue to say that the NIV takes out verse 8 and split up verse 7 - that is untrue as I point out here.
     
  18. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Exactly what I said. It's a shaky faith if one's faith falters on the basis of textual notes.
     
  19. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Remember that when the TR was put together, they did not HAVE the older manuscripts that we have today. If they did, they would have considered them as well.

    To say that we don't have the originals so we fail at textual criticism shows a great lack of understanding of the textual criticism process and the manuscript evidence today. You might want to study up on this someday.
     
  20. Baptist4life

    Baptist4life Well-Known Member
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    That was not what I was referring to, and I think you know that! I'm talking about........some passages are IN some translations......some passages are NOT IN some translations...anyone that doesn't think that causes DOUBT about what IS or ISN'T the Word of God, IMHO, isn't very honest. After all, if one passage can be doubted by some to be the Word of God, why not other passages as well. It's basic COMMON SENSE to me.
     
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