Can anyone explain the relationship of 1 John 2:2 to the Doctrine of Limited Atonement. I have not been able to find a satisfactory article about how to reconcile the Doctrine of Limited Atonement with this verse. I am convinced that Limited Atonement is biblical, but I am having trouble understanding this verse as it relates to Limited Atonement. It 'seems' to contradict the Doctrine of Limited Atonement, and the best article I have found was written by A.W. Pink. Anyone's help is graciously appreciated!