Glenn Conjurske, a defender of the KJV but not a KJV-only advocate and sometimes a critic of modern translations, wrote the following concerning 1 John 5:18-19: "Verse 18: the wicked one does not touch those who are born of God. Verse 19: the whole world--that is, all who are not born of God--lies in the wicked one" (Olde Paths and Ancient Landmarks, October, 1992, p. 217). Conjurske had this note for "the wicked one" in verse 19: "The translation 'wickedness' in verse 19 is certainly mistaken, though grammatically it is possible. In the Greek it is 'the wicked,' in the singular, which may be either masculine ('the wicked one') or neuter ('the wicked thing')--the latter being the equivalent of 'that which is wicked,' or simply 'wickedness.' But this translation, though grammatically possible, is certainly not correct in this place, for verse 19 in the Greek uses the same words as are used in verse 18 (only changing the nominative to the dative, which affects nothing), but in verse 18 the same words must certainly be taken as masculine, not neuter, for the obvious reference is to a personal agent. We are not at liberty to take the words as masculine in verse 18, and neuter in verse 19" (Ibid.). Ralph Earle wrote concerning 1 John 5:19: "We do not have the abstract noun, poneria, but the dative masculine of the adjective poneros. So the correct translation is 'the evil one'" (Word Meanings, p. 452). Do you agree with the arguments offered concerning 1 John 5:19 above or do you think that the KJV's rendering is the correct one and why?