We were discussing this a while back, and I read something that intrigued me. If we are to accept this reading as authentic, dont we also have to admit that a reading can flat out DISAPEAR from the greek manuscript tradition without so much as a trace? I wonder if anyone has looked at it this way. Actually, this isnt just a KJVO question, since many MV users believe this passage to be authentic. My question is, how can a reading be authentic, and then completely disappear from the language it was originally written?