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1 Kings 4:28 which rendering is better?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Logos1560, Jun 12, 2006.

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  1. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Some of the translations on the KJV-only view's line of good Bibles disagree concerning how to translate a Hebrew word at 1 Kings 4:28. The KJV itself is a revision of some of the earlier English Bibles on this line of claimed good Bibles. Some of the ways that this Hebrew word is translated in the line of good Bibles include the following: “work beasts” (Wycliffe’s), “coursers” (1535 Coverdale’s), “beasts” (1537 Matthew’s), “mules” (1560 Geneva, 1568 Bishops’), and “dromedaries” (1611 KJV). The KJV itself translated this same Hebrew word three different ways: “dromedaries” (1 Kings 4:28), “mules” (Esther 8:10, 14), and “swift beast” (Micah 1:13). At 1 Kings 4:28, the 1611 KJV has the following marginal note: “Or mules, or swift beasts.”


    Which of the various renderings on the KJV-only line of good Bibles is the better or more accurate rendering of the Hebrew word?
     
  2. william s. correa

    william s. correa New Member

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    #2 william s. correa, Jun 15, 2006
    Last edited by a moderator: Jun 16, 2006
  3. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    H. B. Tristram maintained that the Hebrew word recesh “signifies ’a swift horse’ of a peculiar and noble breed, particularly a stallion” and that “it is derived from a verb, meaning ’to gallop’” (Natural History of the Bible, p. 81). Wilson’s O. T. Word Studies defined the word at 1 Kings 4:28 as “a horse of a nobler and fleeter race, a steed, courser” (p. 136). Smith’s Bible Dictionary noted: “There seems to be no doubt that it denotes ‘a superior kind of horse’” (p. 211). Green’s Concise Lexicon has this definition for this Hebrew word: “steeds, horses” (p. 218). At this verse, the Liberty Annotated Study Bible [KJV] has this marginal note: “swift steeds” (p. 561). Young’s Analytical Concordance defined rekesh as “swift beast, courser” (p. 274). A courser is “a swift horse.”

    Does the above evidence suggest that the 1535 Coverdale's Bible may actually have the better rendering at 1 Kings 4:28?
     
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