Here's the portion I'm questioning in the the NIV: Here's the footnote referenced by [c]. So, any idea why the NIV has only 70 when most manuscripts say 50,070? I haven't the slightest idea, but I heard a preacher use this to show how the NIV isn't a valid translation because it uses 70 instead of the 50,070 that evidently is found in the TR. In addition to that question, I have another. Are there any denominations that came about as a direct result of a specific Bible translation? I'm not aware of any, but it was implied that some various denominations are a direct result of a new Bible translation that was released.