1 Thessalonians 2v14

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by NaasPreacher (C4K), Jan 23, 2005.

  1. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K)
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    Is Jesus "the" Lord or "our" Lord in the KJV?

    1 Thessalonians chapter 2:

    14 Whereunto he called you by our Gospel, to the obteining of the glorie of the Lord Iesus Christ. (KJV1611)

    14 Whereunto he called you by our gospel, to the
    obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ. (KJV1769)

    Does the 1769 edition make a false claim by referring to Jesus as "our" Lord, or was the 1611 version in error by referring to Jesus as a generic "the" Lord?
     
  2. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards
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    We note the Geneva Bible was right
    and the KJV1611 was wrong and had to be
    corrected in the KJV1679.

    We note also that the scripture is
    2 as in TWO Thessalonians:

    2 Thessalonians 2:14 (Geneva Bible, 1555):

    Whereunto he called you by
    our Gospel, to obtaine the glory
    of our Lord Iesus Christ.
     
  3. Slambo

    Slambo
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    Both...
     
  4. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K)
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    "The" and "our" are different words. Both cannot be accurate in this verse. My question is which version of the KJV is right?
     
  5. Bluefalcon

    Bluefalcon
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    Ed is on the money, and it appears this was a real mistake in the KJV 1611 that was corrected in later editions.

    I don't know a single MS or version that doesn't have the "our" of "our Lord Jesus Christ" at 2 Th. 2:14. I think one MS (17) omits the "our" of "our Gospel," but none (that I know of) omit the "our" of "our Lord Jesus Christ."

    Yours,

    Bluefalcon
     
  6. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob
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    Couldn't find one that didn't have "our". Only the AV1611. Obviously can't trust it! :rolleyes:
     
  7. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K)
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    This appears to be a situation in which we are not going to be told which of these two very different translations is the perfect one.
     
  8. David J

    David J
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    So errors in the text did exist in 1611! And I thought that the door was slammed shut in 1611? I guess not [​IMG]

    Which KJV is the perfect word for word KJV that follows Psalm 12:7(assumming that KJVO myth to be true).

    Remember the old battle cry,"things that are different are not the same"! Well I guess that old warcry should be,"things that are different are not the same unless it's the KJV family that is different then both are perfect"!
     
  9. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K)
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    No answers on which is correct?

    Did the KJV1611 translators make a mistake?

    Or did the typesetters mistake a "t" for an "o" a "h" for a "u" and a "e" for an "r"?
     
  10. Bluefalcon

    Bluefalcon
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    In 2 Th. 2:14 "our" is correct. Nothing (translation or Greek MS or early version I know of) except the KJV has "the", and that is apparently the first time any translation in the world had "the" instead of "our" in this place. Yes, the KJV 1611 has a mistake here. Ed already said as much in the 2nd post of this thread.

    Yours,

    Bluefalcon
     
  11. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K)
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    I am waiting for an acknowledgement from posters who claim the absolute perfection of the AV1611. It looks like they have no answer.
     
  12. David J

    David J
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    C4K,

    The ol' double standard answer "Both" not good nuff for ya? LOL
     
  13. Slambo

    Slambo
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    Seeing that Paul was writing to SAVED people--not lost--,I would say that OUR LORD is the correct rendering....
     
  14. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K)
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    So, Slambo, you admit that the 1611 edition had a mistake in it?
     
  15. michelle

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    And how exactly does this have anything to do with the KJB being God's Holy words? Was it corrected? Yes. Are the errors in the mv's corrected? No. Do they still stand in blatant error? Yes. See yet the difference? Or are you all just plain blind? Or just desire to argue and nitpick about things because you know in your hearts, that what I and many others share with you is right and you do not want to admit it?


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  16. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K)
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    So the KJV1611 is not perfect?
    Is this correct?

    If it had a mistake it was NOT perfect.
     
  17. Bluefalcon

    Bluefalcon
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    That is correct, C4K, the KJV1611 is not "perfect," and I don't suspect any KJVOs to answer you on this one.

    Yours,

    Bluefalcon
     
  18. michelle

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    The only one's here that are guilty of double standards are you and mv proponents. Not only of this, but of HYPOCRICY and DISOBEDIANCE!


    Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  19. michelle

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    &lt;personal attack and questioning of salvation deleted&gt;

    [ January 25, 2005, 11:03 AM: Message edited by: C4K ]
     
  20. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K)
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    You will not question other member's salvation and be permitted to continue to post.

    Once again you are being reported to the administration.

    And beside - you still not answer whether or not a translation with a mistake can be perfect.
     

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