2 Corinthians 5v17

It seems that all my translations agree with the KJV:

NASB: he is a new creature; the old things passed away; behold, new things have come.

NKJV: he is a new creation; old things have passed away; behold, all things have become new.

NIV: he is a new creation; the old has gone, the new has come!

The only difference is that the modern versions are usuing a different textual variant (leaving out the word pantes (all)) and the modern versions read the kaina (new) as the subject while the KJV-NKJV keep the generic subject embedded in the verb and read the kaina as a predicate nomitive. The Greek is ambigious and the issue can only be decided by context. All the modern versions capture the sense of the perfect as "have become new" or "new have come" while the KJV is a little outdated english here, "all things are become new" (???).

Now that I think of it, the textual variant the KJV uses word force the kaina to be a predicate nomitive (ie, all things have become new) and the Greek would not be ambigious. It is interesting that the NIV-NASB translators choose to translate it the way they did up agaist whatever this scribe thought it meant.