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2 Kingdoms

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Amy.G, Feb 9, 2010.

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  1. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    To say that there are two different kingdoms is in the same class as saying there are two or more gospels, HERESY.
     
    #141 OldRegular, Feb 12, 2010
  2. Steven2006

    Steven2006 New Member

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    What I meant to write was heaven & God, I corrected it with the edit button.
     
    #142 Steven2006, Feb 12, 2010
  3. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    Thank you Bro. Blackbird for reopening the thread. :)

    I think this has been a pretty good discussion. I'm still not convinced of the 2 kingdoms though. They still seem the same to me.
     
    #143 Amy.G, Feb 12, 2010
  4. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    The fact that "kingdom of heaven" is only spoken of by Matthew is something to be considered. Why, if there are 2 kingdoms, would the other gospels not speak of them?
    Steven may have a point about the Jews and the word "God". Although, God is mentioned many other times in Matthew's gospel, so I'm not sure about it.
     
    #144 Amy.G, Feb 12, 2010
  5. Steven2006

    Steven2006 New Member

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    I agree with you about the meaning of the specific difference in using the phrase "kingdom of heaven" or "kingdom of God". But I think that is a separate issue as to whether Jesus will set up a literal kingdom, I haven't been arguing against that only the phrasing in Matthew.

    After some study these past few days I am more convinced the reason behind his phrasing was because of Matthew being sensitive to his Jewish audience.
     
    #145 Steven2006, Feb 12, 2010
  6. Steven2006

    Steven2006 New Member

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    I have already quoted a few sources that pointed to the Jewish sensitivity factor, here is another interesting one.:

    "Still other Jewish features are the typically Jewish designation of God as the "Father in heaven" (fifteen times in Matthew, only once in Mark, and not at all in Luke), reverential substitution of "heaven" for the name of God (especially in the phrase "kingdom of heaven." where the other evangelists have "kingdom" of God")." - from "A Survey Of The New Testament"

    This points out that there was a consistency in Matthews writing where he often used "Father in heaven" instead of just writing "God". He obviously didn't mean two different Gods. I think this is more evidence that shows the difference in Mathew from the other Gospels was styled more to his Jewish audience rather then a second meaning to the use of "heaven"
     
    #146 Steven2006, Feb 12, 2010
  7. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    I think that is the most reasonable explanation so far. :thumbsup:
     
    #147 Amy.G, Feb 12, 2010
  8. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    I agree...now it can be closed :tongue3:
     
    #148 webdog, Feb 12, 2010
  9. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    Bump...............
     
    #149 Amy.G, Feb 15, 2010
  10. olegig

    olegig New Member

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    I noticed your by-line or whatever it is called and thought of this:

    Isa 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

    The child has been born and a son has been given, both fulfilled physically.....
    But is the government physically upon his shoulder yet?

    The kingdom of Heaven is when the scriptures speak of the government physically being upon His shoulder and He will be the Prince of Peace.
     
    #150 olegig, Feb 15, 2010
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