2 Peter 3:9

Southern,

I would like to tell you about 2 Peter 3:9.

I am not an Arminianist. I understand 2 Peter 3:9 very clear and simple. I do not need to read Greek. I can read 2 Peter 3:9 in my own language - English.

The key that we can understand what 2 Peter 3:9 is talking about, we have to read the context of chapter 3, what it is talking about.

We have to start with verse 3, the last days scoffers asked and saying, where is Lord's promise of his coming. Many of them already died throughout centuries. They were expecting Lord might come anytime in thier lifetime.

Apostle Peter used the illustation of Noah - vs. 5-7.

While Noah built the Ark, I am sure, many of them already saw Noah built the Ark on a dry land. And I am no doubt, Noah already preached warning to people about the coming of flood. Noah built the Ark for 120 years. In my mind, for example: 10 years old son notices Noah builts the Ark, then he asks his Dad, "Why does he built the Ark?" Dad laughs and saying to him, "For many years, I heard rumours about the flood will destroy the world, but I don't believe it, because it will never happen, and we never see rain, don't believe Noah, what he saying." I am sure, many people were laughing at Noah, they think he is no nut.

God was long-suffering with people for 120 years. He was waiting for any perosn to come into the Ark. God gave so plenty time to people to have chance to repent and enter the Ark for 120 years.

2 Peter 3:8 shows us, during Noah's day, people would have saying, 'We have hear the same old story for so many years, but, nothing to happen.'. 100 years seem so long time to people's sight. But, people were not aware of the flood suddenly came upon them, and took them away. Apostle Peter's point of verse 8 tells us, 1000 years in our sight, it seems so very long time. But, in the Lord's sight, 1000 years are tooooooo short time for him LIKE AS a day.

Apostle Peter tells us of verse 9, Lord's will, that He does not want all people to be perish, but command everyone come to repentance. He is long-suffering toward us, that he commands us to repentance.

The lesson of history in Genesis chapter 6 & 7 telling us, the flood came and destroyed them all, because they do not repentance of their sins, they are right now in hell.

Apostle Peter warns us, Lord's coming shall be like as thief in the night. - 2 Peter 3:10

Throughout many centuries, many people saying, 'I hear many saying Jesus is coming soon, but it never happen for many years." In other word, people would make laugh, and do not believe Jesus is coming again, same as what happened to people in Noah's day.

Jesus tells us, flood came and took them all away immediately, so shall be same as at Christ's coming - Matt. 24:37-39.

When Christ shall come with His angels, people who are not watch and ready, and remain in sins without repentance, He shall send his angels to grab all people in the air without any expect, that is called, 'thief in the night' comparing same with the flood came and took them all away.

The oppurinity of salvation is now give people have plenty time to repentance for nearly 2,000 years - 1 Cor. 6:2.

But, the oppurinity of salvation will be finished, when once Christ shall come with his angels to grab them away.

So, it was same as what happened to people in Noah's day.

God's will, that He commands every person on earth to repentance, He does not want all people go perished. He loves all people of the world (John 3:16).

More people are in the hell, because they refused to repentance of their sins, and reject Jesus Christ.

Obivously, the Bible teaches us, salvation is for everyone of the world, not just for the Christians only (1 John 2:2).

I am not claim for "universalism", I understand clear what the Bible saying.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

Hi Southern;
As they say the proof is in the pudding. The word "all" is all inclusive. I don't have a problem with it's obvious meaning. You do so prove it doesn't mean all inclusive. The dictionary says it is all inclusive. When we find something in scripture we don't like we should pray about it. Sometimes the Word is like that it doesn't always tell us what we want to hear.
May God Bless You;
Mike

 

Think of it, it is the Lord's 'promise' [vs. 9a] ' . . . that none should perish and that all people should come to repentance' {my translation} And notice that He is patient with sinners, to a point, and then judgment falls. The final judgment of sinners is expressed in Revelation 20:11. But for now, He is reaching out to the fallen sons and daughters coming out of the His creation way back to the Garden scene, which includes us.

 

Southern,

It is true that II Peter 3:1 speaks of the '[beloved.'

But in verse nine Peter does not need to tell the saved elect that He is longsuffering toward them nor do they have to worry about 'perishing, nor do they need repentance. This being expressed, only the lost are in need of longsuffering/patience, they need to escape from perishing and they are in dire need of repentance.

Why? Because the Day of the Lord will come and the earth will be incinerated with fire.

Ray

 

The Greek scholar Dr. Kenneth S. Wuest makes these statements "In These Last Days" about II Peter chapter three.

'His will is not even that 'some' should perish, though that is regarded as inevitable . . . . Some will perish, but it is not His will. His will is that all should come to repentance. The goodness of God should lead to repentance.' p.70.

Second statement: 'It is not God's considered will that any should perish. There is the sovereignty of God and the free will of man. God will not violate man's will. While it is His considered will that no one should be lost, yet in making man in His image He necessarily had to make him a free moral agent, with a will which is able to say "yes" and "no" to Him. While God is always willing to save man, man is not always willing to be saved.' p.71.

Third statement: 'The word "willing" is (boulomai). The synonyms thelo and boulomai mean "to wish, desire."

Your theory admittedly was clever but not true to the text and yet well within the parameter of Calvinism.

Dr. A.T. Robertson says the same thing as Dr. Wuest. Something to sleep on . . .

 

Southern,

2 Peter 3:9 does not always speak to us as elect, also, it apply to everyone of the world.

Because, the context of 2 Peter 3:3-7 speak of the people(unbelievers) of the world, that the last days scoffers asking, where is the promise of Lord's coming? Many of them already died throughout many centuries ago. They were expecting Lord might come anytime in their lifetime. In other word, they often hear old story or rumours saying, Jesus is coming again. People does not believe Jesus is coming. Same with people before flood - 2 Peter 3:5-7. People does not expect the flood suddenly come and took them away (Matt. 24:37-39), so, this shall be same as at Christ's coming shall be like as thief in the night (2 Peter 3:10).

Genesis chapter 7 tells us, flood killed all people of the world without expect. Same with Christ's coming, all unbelievers of the world shall be take away without expect (thief in the night-vs. 10).

That why, Lord does not want all people of the world go perished, but He desires all people come to repentance. God is so long-suffering towqard people of the world. God so loved all people (John 3:16; 2 John 2:2).

But, most people shall be take away without repentance.

2 Peter 3:9 is so very clearly telling us, God does not want all people go to hell, but want all people to repent. Most people refuses to repent of sins. That why most people are on the way to hell, not because of God's fault, because of their choice.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

What specifically is the Lord's Promise? Is it that He will return again? That promise remains a valid promise does it not? Well then, what is keeping him from returning? Is it not because all who will believe in Him have not yet become believers? God is patient and long...really LONG...suffering, continuing in HIS Grace toward mankind until He is ready. In the meantime, his grace which he has not withheld from man remains in force, and though we are not saved by his grace, it is sufficient unto our salvation, because it enables us to come to faith in Him. God's Grace is present for ALL mankind, it is not a commodity that he hands out like candy to some element called 'the elect'. We all experience His Grace, righteous and unrighteous alike! We all have access to "His Word" through the Holy Spirit, and God is not a respecter of man. He does not go about choosing. He has chosen us all in the Son of God's declaration, "For God so loved the world....." So, does Peter's "all" mean "all" or just some? Yes, it means all who will come to Him in FAITH shall be saved.

 

Peter is writing the first letter to those who have by persecution been driven away from their homes. Peoples who were permitted to hear the word of God and develope the "spirit of obedience to Jesus", otherwise known as faith in Jesus, and who's sins are atoned by the blood of Jesus.

This second letter of Peter's, is addressed to Gentiles who have obtained a faith like Peter's own faith.

The first letter to the first century jewish believers dispersed from Israel, the second to the gentile believers.

The "people" you refer to are

Jesus just shot Calvin down! Everyone who "sees the Son and Believes" is the people that you want to call "the elect"!

 

No, Wes, you have actually SUPPORTED Calvin...


Us, in the first clause = the persons to whom the letter is addressed, who are clearly Christians. You agree with this.

The content of the first clause delimits those in the second clause to other believers. It can not mean all persons, both believers and non-believers. You say the persons to whom the second clause refers are the persons in Jn. 6:40. This is exactly what Reformed theology teaches.

The same persons raised in Jn. 6:40 are the same ones given in 6:37. You forgot to look down into 6:44 where it clearly says that nobody can come to the Father unless they are drawn. The word "can" very clear indicates power or ability not permission. The only way your view works if the word "can" means "permission," but koine Greek does not support that. Unless you're saying as David Hunt says that "given," "draw," and "can" are completely separate meanings, which is not exegetically true at all (even according to other Arminians), then this should be clear.

Congratulations, you have just proven Southern's exegesis!

 

Gene,
"Christian" is a state of faith, not a nationality, or ethnicity. My first quote is 1 peter 1:1,2, my second quote is 2 peter 1:1.

You can limit God by your definition if you wish, but you cannot limit God to your definition. He has his own desires, and they include "that none should perish". "None" means, not one out of all.

It is God who created the world, the whole world, not just part of a world. So when one speaks for God, one better have God's perspective.

The authors of the works known as God's Word, may well have had a limiting perspective as you seem to have. They would not have been "globalists" but rather quite localized. The way they wrote may have been from a limited perspective because they were Jews writing about that which happens to and for Jews...from their perspective.

All I'm saying is that by limiting the word of God to ones own perspective only limits one's own understanding of God's word.

I have not set out to prove anyone's exegesis, but since you say I have, I accept your congratulations.