Please don't answer unless you actually can read the Greek and Hebrew. I know the response will be limited, but I need your help. Here in the American west we often run into and minister to folks out of a very patriarchal (in a bad way) cult. So my questions, trying to clarify my personal study and outreach, are these. 1. Based on the original languages, do you see any reason to maintain the English construct of masculine generic? Why or why not? 2. Among those translation purporting to be gender accurate, which do you believe comes closest? Not looking to cater to either feminists or male chauvinists here. Example: if the scripture actually reads "all adult male homo sapiens should drink chocolate milk" would the translation say "all men should drink chocolate milk"? What if it really said "all homo sapiens", with no gender or age specified? Would the translation show that? Perhaps "all humans should drink chocolate milk?" 3. If you toss out the question of gender issues, which translation do you find more accurate to the Greek and Hebrew. I would accept both received text and modern texts--not asking about textual basis but feel free to mention it if that colors your choice. Again, thanks for any help you can give but do not answer unless you can read Greek and Hebrew.