I'm a newbie to these boards, so if this question should be posted elsewhere, please let me know. Romans 6:23--For the wages of sin is death. . . . In this clause, "for" is not a preposition, but a conjunction linking this verse to the previous verse. "Wages" is the subject of the sentence. "Of sin" is a prepositional phrase. "Is" is the verb. And "death" is the subject complement/predicate nominative. If "wages," which is plural, is the subject and "is," which is singular, is the verb, why did the translators not have the subject agree with its verb? Now, if anyone is awake after the lead up to this question, I'd love to hear your thoughts on the verse's use of grammar. Thanks.