This evening, while studying a passage of pivotal importance to Old Testament theology, I noticed a huge difference between KJV of 1611 and the KJV of 1769: 1Chron. 26:18 And Parbar Westward, foure at the causey, and two at Parbar. (KJV, 1611) 1Chron. 26:18 At Parbar westward, four at the causeway, and two at Parbar. Therefore, I have two questions for the Old Testament theology scholars on this message board who are of the KJO clan. Which of these two renderings is the inspired Word of God, and which one is not? Secondly, in your personal opinion, what is the impact on the teaching of Jesus in John 6:47 if a reader uses the wrong KJV when reading 1Chron. 26:18?