Featured A pastor’s qualifications:

Murderers and child molestors usually never see the light of day in public ever again. But that's not to say God wouldn't use them in prison. Paul was a murderer, youse knows?

 

Original post was #9.

My point being, that some try to justify that "husband of one wife" by saying one wife at a time; however, is that same standard applied to the additional verse later in 1 Timothy?

I agree with your view of the marriage.

 

How about an alternative to this? How about the man who went through the marriage struggle, but didn't get divorced? Would they be as qualified as the divorced man?

Let's not forget we're talking about the pastor here. Anyone can preach, and counsel others on the problems you've identified here. But in order to be the best pastor possible, and able to minister to all their flock, do they need to be divorced, a recovered alcoholic, a recovered porn addict, etc., etc.?

When you qualify it with "...and is miserable" -- agreed. But I personally would rather have marriage advice from someone who has been through the trials and tribulations, and overcome them, and has (continues to have?) only one successful marriage.

I know I'm coming across as somewhat pharisaical on this subject. But I've tried to teach my kids that scripture says lying, murder, etc. are wrong. I have problems explaining to them why scripture says "husband of one wife," and then working to explain that "one wife" doesn't mean "only" one wife. I've yet to come across an explanation that doesn't sound like I'm trying to make exceptions.

 

(KJV) But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

The Greek word is porneia. Out of all the translations that I compared Young's translation is the only one that translated it as "whoredom." It is a poor translation in this verse. The word porneia, accurately translated "fornication" means sex before marriage. That is its primary meaning. It can have a broader meaning, but that is its primary meaning, just as adultery is sex after marriage.

The meaning of the verse is this: Matthew was writing to primarily an audience with a Jewish background. Once a couple was "betrothed" (think engaged) in the public's eyes they were as good as married. So it was with Joseph and Mary. That is why Joseph though of "putting away" or divorcing Mary--because he discovered that she was with child and had committed "fornication." They were not married yet, but in the account they were already referred to as husband and wife. That is how binding the agreement was. Once Jesus was married their marriage was solemnized.
The meaning of the verse applies to the betrothal period. If a woman is unfaithful or commits fornication during that engagement period then the man is not bound to marry her. It is not an excuse to divorce even in our society.

The same explanation is given above.
Note that he does not condone divorce. It was given because of the hardness of Israel's hearts. It is not for today. From the beginning it was not so.
He is very specific here and does not contradict himself as you suppose:
Mat 19:4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
Mat 19:5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
Mat 19:6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

There is not one mention of divorce in 1Corinthians 7. Where does it say divorce?

Forgiven, yes; but there are consequences to some sins more than there are to others.

Paul didn't become a pastor, per se. He was used of God to right an instructional manual for pastors to come.
Remember also that the Book of Acts was a time of transition for the church. For example, they started meeting in the Temple, then in the synagogues, and from there wherever they could--often in homes.
As time passed so did the gifts of the Spirit--the gift of speaking in tongues for example eventually faded out of existence. This was a history of a church in transition. And Paul's ministry must be looked at that way as well.

 

The consequence of sin is eternal death unless that sin is covered by the blood of Jesus Christ. Pardon or forgiveness removes the penalty for sin, justification removes the guilt of sin.

Now it is true that sin may have earthly consequences, whether by a believer or nonbeliever, that cannot be reversed. God is not going to grow a man a new pair of legs whether he is a believer or an unbeliever. However, the sins that a man [woman] commits before they are regenerated, converted, forgiven, and justified are gone forever, cast into the depths of the sea. And that is what the Bible says!

 

Can you prove that by Scripture?

 

Lot of folks on this Forum need to get their Bibles and contemplate these Scripture:

2Corinthians 5:17. Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.

Galatians 6:15. For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature.

Some seem to be interpreting the requirement that a pastor be blameless to mean that they have never sinned. Again that is not according to Scripture.

 

Jesus Christ states differently.

 

Ever heard that expression "Mommy called, Daddy sent". that may be one of the problems with the churches today, any pastors are not called by God.

 

I believe Paul was speaking as a missionary!

 

Brother OR, I used 2 Cor. 5:17, 1 Cor. 7 and they stated it wasn't directed to being a pastor. I also posted 1 Cor. 6:9-11...

 

The Apostle Paul states it much better than I could:

2Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

I believe Paul is speaking to all the Saints, the "true believers" and that includes pastors, elders, deacons; and that includes the Scripture you posted, which is exactly what Paul states above.

I must say that I have never really understood all that God is telling us in 1 Corinthians 7 but there is no reason to limit His Word to any specific class. In my opinion what God through Paul gives as requirements for a deacon, pastor, elder, properly interpreted, present a reasonable standard for all believers. I would also note that God calls pastors, elders, deacons, out of the body of believers, not from unbelievers.

Furthermore, I see a lot of Pharisaism in some remarks about the statement A bishop then must be blameless, [1Timothy 3:2] as if the pastor, bishop, elder, deacon must be without sin from birth.

Scripture tells us that we all should be, will be blameless:

1Corinthians 1:8. Who shall also confirm you unto the end, that ye may be blameless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Philippians 2:15 That ye may be blameless and harmless, the sons of God, without rebuke, in the midst of a crooked and perverse nation, among whom ye shine as lights in the world;

2Peter 3:14 Wherefore, beloved, seeing that ye look for such things, be diligent that ye may be found of him in peace, without spot, and blameless.

 

Here is what I said with your reply above:

"God recognizes the marriages in the Catholic churches, and in the Hindu religion, etc. But He doesn't recognize divorce. If he doesn't recognize divorce, there is a consequence for it."

How does God not recognize marriage from other religions, such as Islam, Hinduism and even Roman Catholicism. If you have one married couple from each religion, each having children from their respective marriages, and these couples get saved, then what? You don't recognize their marriages under their unsaved or even pagan religions? Do you marry them again. Have them divorce each other first so you can remarry them under a "Christian" umbrella? Is that what you think when you say: "Jesus states differently."
Where does Jesus come even close to stating anything as absurd as that?

 

I was referring to the "he doesn't recognize divorce," statement.

 

Can I prove what I said by Scripture? I wouldn't post it if I couldn't. Here is what I said:

First God hates divorce:
[FONT=&quot]Malachi 2:13 And this have ye done again, covering the altar of the LORD with tears, with weeping, and with crying out, insomuch that he regardeth not the offering any more, or receiveth it with good will at your hand.
14 Yet ye say, Wherefore? Because the LORD hath been witness between thee and the wife of thy youth, against whom thou hast dealt treacherously: yet is she thy companion, and the wife of thy covenant.
15 And did not he make one? Yet had he the residue of the spirit. And wherefore one? That he might seek a godly seed. Therefore take heed to your spirit, and let none deal treacherously against the wife of his youth.
16 For the LORD, the God of Israel, saith that he hateth putting away: for one covereth violence with his garment, saith the LORD of hosts: therefore take heed to your spirit, that ye deal not treacherously.[/FONT]
--The Lord hates divorce.

Those that divorce and remarry live in a continual state of adultery.
[FONT=&quot]Mark 10:11 And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.
12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.[/FONT]

(Hastings Bible Encyclopedia).
Note that the remarriage Paul is speaking of is in the context of widows whose spouses had already died.

Marriage is a sacred institution not to be trifled with. We are the Bride and Christ the Bridegroom. That in itself is a sacred picture of a sacred institution. The bride is not a divorced bride but a chaste virgin. Look what the Scriptures say here:

(Hastings Bible Encyclopedia)
Again divorce shatters this picture. God hates divorce, and remarriage even more.
It disqualifies one from the ministry.