In 1 John 2:2, there is the word "propitiation". According to Strong's, the Greek word can mean "expiation" or "propitiation" or simply "atoning sacrifice". Since this is the case, I have a few questions. 1) If there is such a large difference, as it seems to be debated heavily in theological circles, among these 3 phrases, why is the same Greek word used? According to Strong's, "expiation" and "propitiation" come from the same word (hilasmos) 2) According to A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, Third Edition. Revised and Edited by Fredrick William Danker, hilasmos means "appeasement necessitated by sin, expiation" or "instrument for appeasing, sacrifice to atone, sin-offering". "Propitiation" is found in a different word entirely (hilaskomai). This being the case, is "propitiation" an accurate translation of the word in 1 John 2:2? 3) Why is there a shift from hilasmos meaning "propitiation" and "expiation" to it just meaning "expiation" and a different word for "propitiation"? 4) This is my last question. What are some scholarly sources that deal with the Greek of these verses online and otherwise? I ask these questions because I have an exegetical paper to write for my Greek class and I decided that I'd use 1 John 2:1-2.