The scripture teaches that the people of the earth had grown increasingly wicked and it angered the Lord, but that he found favor with Noah: Why did Noah find favor in the eyes of the Lord? Why did all others grieve God? Is it the view of Calvinists that God effectually caused Noah to be 'favorable' so that He would find favor with him? And is it Calvinists view that God grieved and expressed his anger toward those he condemned from birth (due to the Fall) for their acting exactly as they were born to act? Clearly God expresses his desire for the people to obey and not act this way. So, if that is the case why wouldn't God simply effectually cause them to act as Noah did? Is God just acting?