I posted this on another board about a month ago and have only recieved 1 reply. I was wondering if any of ya'll had insight. I am just a lay man tryng to learn and grow in grace. The reply I got was somewhat helpful but I would like more info! -It is my understanding that the synoptic gospels use Jewish time references & John uses Roman time. However the footnotes in the ESV in John refer to Jewish time. (Jn 1:39, Jn 19:14, etc.) This would seem to cause a contridiction. The foot notes in two of my other translations (NASB & HCSB) refer to Roman time in John. The my NIV, NKJV, & KJV are not footnoted but the study notes with the NIV study bible sugest the John probably used Roman time. Why does the ESV do this? Is there an historical reason for the ESV to do this or is it just a mistake or oversight? Eaglewing!