I thought that I would start this thread to put to rest the fact that a KJVo that claims to be an 'AV1611' and is using the 1769 Oxford edition is true evidence that a word-for-word perfect translation did not exist between 1611 to 1769 (assuming the 1769 is considered by the KJVo to be perfect word-for-word.) Let us provide evidence of actual changes and discuss the different versions up through the present. I quote from "The Journey from Texts to Translation". In the chapter "The Authorized Version of 1611 and its Revisions" "Joohn Wesley revised some twelve thousand changes in 1768. . . E.J. Goodspeed estimated that the 1769 written by Dr. Benjamin Blayney, Regius Professor of Hebrew at Oxford differed in at least seventy-five THOUSAND places from the AV of 1611." I reworded this slightly without changing the meaning to shorten it down. (My note: Notice that one person made these multiple changes, not a committee.) For those of you who claim that these were only spelling changes a few word changes are listed, including, but not limited to: Word: mean man 1611: common man Modern: cruel man Word: meat 1611: any kind of food Modern: flesh Word: peculiar 1611: that which belongs to one person Modern: strange Word: wealthy 1611: happy Modern: rich Word: passenger 1611: passer by Modern: person being transported on something Word: prevent 1611: to come before Modern: to hinder This is by no means exhaustive. This shows real word changes in what some KJVo's claim to be a word-for-word accurate translation. Now, if anybody would like to discuss, add, etc. go for it. KJVo, you are welcome to present your theory, but don't turn it into personal attacks. I would also like to see some of the scriptural WORD changes between 1611 and 1769 Oxford. I think maybe we should start calling the KJVo's "Oxfords".