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Adam represented all men and Christ represented...who exactly?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Skandelon, Dec 29, 2009.

  1. ReformedBaptist

    ReformedBaptist Well-Known Member

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    Skand,

    Here are the Scriptures that speak to this subject:

    The passages that could be cited from 1 Cor 15 speak to the general ressurection of both the good and the wicked, in paul's arguement to prove that the dead are raised. But this Romans passage is different.

    To answer your question plainly, we (Calvinists) do believe Christ represent all who were "in Him" as Adam represented all who were "in him." You may remember this being referred to theologically as federal headship.

    Just as the Levitical priesthood payed tithes "in Abraham" so the actions, in our text the disobedience of Adam, was accomplished by all in him (Adam). In other words, when Adam sinned we sinned in him.

    And when Christ obeyed, we obeyed in Him. But is each and every man born into this world born in Christ? No. They are yet born in Adam and under bondage. To be in Christ one must be born again.

    The reason why we can be faithful to the Scripture is because we are agreeing with it that both Adam and the Second Adam, Jesus Christ, are representing all their offspring.

    Verse 21 I think says this well "That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord."

    If that representing of Christ for His offspring must mean each and every man, than just as surely as death was the effect of the first man's disobedience, so MUST righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord, be the effect for each and every man..and you end up with universalism.

    But this is not the case, but the offspring of Christ are those who recieve it. Verse 17 "For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ."
     
  2. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    No, it's not a false dichotomy. We are speaking of choice - not only one choice. Given a starving child and one choice, of course they're going to choose to eat. OK - Let's work with your choices. You have a starving child and you offer them a 1 lb. steak or a single pea. Can they choose a pea? Sure. It's an actual choice but I'll bet 100% would choose the steak.

    Does that work better for you?

    How about offer that starving person a shoe or a steak? I bet I can guess what they'd choose.
     
  3. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    Now you are basing the choice on perception...and that is the exact thing free will hinges on! The choices men make are based on what they perceive them as not "according to their nature". At any rate, you have presented man the real choice to accept Christ, an ability which strikes down many doctines reformed theology needs to work (limited atonement, total depravity, irresistable grace)
     
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