First of all, all Alexandrian MSS in my opinion are at least 90 percent perfect if you will, and many of them are even more perfect than that. Therefore, I would never say anything like, "Alexandrian MSS must be corrupt," because such would be untrue at least 90 percent of the time, and sometimes even more than that. Since no complete NT MS is known to be without a mistake of some kind somewhere, we can only talk about degrees of perfection. The only thing I'm interested in when arguing Alexandrian vs. Byzantine is which group is the most accurate, the most perfect, if you will. It is my belief that the Byzantines, as a consensus, are more perfect than the Alexandrians. I will even go so far as to say that I do not know for sure any place in the NT where an overwhelming majority of the Byzantines are definitely corrupt. I cannot say that for the Alexandrians. For example, the chief Alexandrians (Aleph B L) at the end of Mt. 27:49 include an apparent interpolation from Jn. 19:34, "But another took a spear and pierced his side, and water and blood came forth." This Alexandrian corruption (if I may be permitted to call it that) at this point in the narrative puts Jesus screaming with a loud voice and giving up the ghost (Mt. 27:50) apparently as a result of this vicious action of the one who took up the spear. Not exactly the way Jesus is traditionally remembered to have died, and also at odds with the other accounts. SCORE: Byzantine Consensus: 1 Alexandrian Chiefs: 0 So here is the challenge, and the rules for the challenge, since it is MY thread. In the same post, present (1) your best arguments for the authenticity of what I call a Chief Alexandrian corruption above, and (2) present a place where the Byzantine Consensus is, in your opinion, definitely corrupt, and the reasons for your decision.