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An Answer To Alcoholic Beverages

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by His Blood Spoke My Name, Jun 19, 2007.

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  1. mcdirector

    mcdirector Active Member

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    It would certainly have helped all of us who can't tell from the context which wine is which.
     
  2. Bible-boy

    Bible-boy Active Member

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    This thread has been beaten to death and is rapidly approaching 25 pages. I'm issuing a 24 hour notice of closure (meaning the thread will be closed within the next 24 hours).
     
  3. His Blood Spoke My Name

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    He goes on to explain the meaning of the term translated “not given to wine” (paroinos):

    “The ancient paroinos was a man accustomed to attend
    drinking parties.” Thus the Christian minister is not
    only to be personally sober, but also to withhold his
    presence and sanction from those assemblies where
    alcoholic drinks are used, endangering the sobriety of
    himself and others.

    Here we can see that the passage clearly condemns the use and association with alcoholic beverages. This is perfectly consistent with the command, “A Bishop then must be blameless” (See Also Titus 1:6,7). The word translated “blameless” here in verse 2, means “not laid hold on” i.e., free from reproach. The Amplified Bible states:

    Now a Bishop (Superintendent, Overseer) must give no
    grounds for accusation but must be above reproach.

    Wuest explains:

    That is, a Bishop must be of such a spotless character that
    no one can lay hold upon anything in his life which would
    be of such a nature as to cast reproach upon the cause of
    the Lord Jesus. He presents to the world at large such a
    Christian life that he furnishes no grounds for accusation.

    If we read further down the passage to 1 Timothy 3:10, it states again:

    …then let them use the office of a Deacon, being found
    Blameless.

    Now we can see even more clearly why the Christian minister is commanded to stay away from alcoholic drinks. This is in order to fully maintain his blameless reputation.

    There are some however that will dispute the meaning of the translation of the command “not given to wine,” some of which are reputable scholars. Admittedly there are problems in this area, but we will see that there are some Bible scholars who have been prejudiced on this subject. This is why most Bible translations have not clearly brought to light the full meaning of the inspired text in the abstinence case.

    We will look more closely at Bible translations in another chapter. But first of all, it is only fair to look at the views of those scholars who oppose the abstinence cause and in the opinion of the author, take a literal view which when examined in the light of the inspired text does not make sense.


    Exerpt from 'Wine in the Bible and the Scriptural Case for Total Abstinence" by Leighton G. Campbell.

     
  4. mcdirector

    mcdirector Active Member

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    We certainly tried our best Bible-boy ;)

    I'm not sure it's necessary to wait that long. I can't think of anything else anyone could possibly add, but I never dreamed we'd get this far on on this one :laugh:

    Thank you for your patience!
     
  5. Bible-boy

    Bible-boy Active Member

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    I agree...

    Thread is now closed.
     
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