An Interesting fact About the Nestle 28th edition Reagarding MT!

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by Yeshua1, Mar 28, 2013.

  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1
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    saw this on the website for Dr wallace!

    "As INTF worked through the Catholic letters, they came to see much greater value of the Byzantine manuscripts than they had previously. In Wachtel’s presentation, he noted that the NA27 displayed “prejudice against the Byzantine tradition” while the NA28 recognized the “reliability of the mainstream tradition.” This is a welcome change in perspective, made possible because of exhaustive collations."

    danielbwallace.com/category/new-testament-studies/greek-grammar

    Are we 'coming closer together?"
     
  2. jonathan.borland

    jonathan.borland
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    Yes, some of us have seen this all along, and not blindly swallowed what we were taught. Nevertheless, NA28 is still predominantly Alexandrian.
     
  3. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1
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    Which is understandable, as that "family' would in most cases still be regarded as best /closest to originals, but think that they also realised that in some areas the MT just might have had it right !
     
  4. John of Japan

    John of Japan
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    Clarify, please. Your statement doesn't say who would regard the Alexandrian family as "best/closest to the originals." There have always been textual critics who disagreed with this statement, yet you act as if it were a proven fact. In truth, Westcott and Hort had a presupposition that was prejudiced against the Byzantine family. Many textual critics have swallowed that unproven presupposition whole to this very day.
     
  5. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1
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    I was just saying that while many scholars would hold to the CT being a superior textual basis, that there also seems here to be finally an awareness that in some areas the MT would be making better choices as to which variant/wording actually reflected the original meaning, better than the CT did!

    And do not take my position as meaning that the CT is ONLY text to use, I am NOT a textual expert, justwasbasing this upon the textbooks have read from both positions on this, andI conclude that you are fine to use TR/MT/CT etc, as tome all would be the word of God preserved for us today in the greek texts!
     
  6. John of Japan

    John of Japan
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    Thanks for the clarification.

    Regardless of what is being said in other threads about the Greek NT, I think that a case can be made for inerrancy in any Greek or Hebrew text.
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1
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    agreed! One can argue for the superority of one over the other, but all would be seen as being the 'word of God"...
     

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