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Are all men were created equal?

Discussion in 'Political Debate & Discussion' started by buckster75, Sep 22, 2005.

  1. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    John said:
    Don't forget that the places where scripture referrs to God hating does not carry an inference of God withholding love. We tend to presume that hate equates to not loving. That may be true in our English verbage, but it's not true in regards to scriptural application or attribute.

    I want to believe this but in the case of Esau when God uses hate of one and love of another in the same verse. how can this not set up the fact that he meant He did not love Esau?
     
  2. here now

    here now Member

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    This is correct. This is what it means, and that is the way that it should be. But I think we all know that it is not so.
     
  3. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    During the early 1800's, one way that suffrage was expanded in many states was to do away with property ownership as a qualification for voting
     
  4. Daisy

    Daisy New Member

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    Well, yeah. I left off the "theoretically". That is where some of the dispute over "activist" judges stems from. Requiring states to provide legal consel to indigent people charged with a criminal offense is one example. Was that part of the Miranda decision?

    National sufferage was granted with the 19th Amendment, but individual states could set their own rules for local elections. One of those pioneer states, Wyoming or Montana - I forget which, allowed women sufferage in the 1800's.
     
  5. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Easy. The context of the word in Hebrew are "finding favor with" and "having less favor", or in layman's terms, loving and loving less. The word for hate denotes a loathing, distaste, etc. It does not denote a withholding of love as we often infuse in the English word.

    If this were not so, then scripture contradicts itself in light of John 3:16.

    [ September 22, 2005, 05:30 PM: Message edited by: Johnv ]
     
  6. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    John:
    which translation should I be reading to get this .looks like KJV is misleading
     
  7. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    It's not a translation issue, but a grammatic issue of the Hebrew. You need to look at the original Hebrew (to be specific, the contextual meaning of the word "sane", pronounced "sawnay"). If you do a google search, I'm sure you'll be able to find some existing commentaries on the topic. The reason I'm aware of this is because this was one of the topics that stuck with me in Bible college.

    For example, we English-speakers have only one word for "love", while in Greek and Hebrew, there are multiple words.
     
  8. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    ok thanks John. Is KJV the best to use though?
     
  9. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    The KJV is fine. Just remember to let scripture interpret scripture. John 3:16 and other verses denote that God loves all, so it stands to reason that when God hates, he does not withhold His love from those he hates.
     
  10. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    10-4.....I guess you are old enough to know what that means?
     
  11. carpro

    carpro Well-Known Member
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    Easy. The context of the word in Hebrew are "finding favor with" and "having less favor", or in layman's terms, loving and loving less. The word for hate denotes a loathing, distaste, etc. It does not denote a withholding of love as we often infuse in the English word.

    If this were not so, then scripture contradicts itself in light of John 3:16.
    </font>[/QUOTE]It seems those that fail to remember to take the Bible as a whole have some real trouble with these kinds of issues. Satan is aware and uses these failings to his advantage.

    By the time I could get to my trusty dusty Unger's Bible Dictionary to be sure I was right about what I was thinking about "hated", you had already pointed it out. [​IMG]
     
  12. PamelaK

    PamelaK New Member

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    Aren't we all created in God's image? Wouldn't that be enough to say we were all created equal?
    (Sorry if that has already been brought up)
     
  13. OCC

    OCC Guest

    Then we have to ask if we were created in God's image. Adam and Eve were...we were made by our parents. What I just said is a theological belief I read about but forget the name of it so I'm sorry for that.

    Feel free to disagree with me but someone feel free to know what I'm talking about and maybe expand on it.
     
  14. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    I always though that "created man in His image" meant that He made us with something that would never die, ie a soul.
     
  15. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    the writers of the DOI though were talking about "all men are created equal" that one group is no better than another group. that England had no right to treat the colonies (citizens of England) differently that those actually in England. As I read it anyway.
     
  16. OCC

    OCC Guest

    You may be right. I just heard this theory before that the only ones God created were Adam and Eve. The rest of us were made by our parents and our inherited sin nature is proof of this. God wouldn't create something bad.
     
  17. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    do note though that they acknowledge we are "created" and also we have a "Creator".
     
  18. OCC

    OCC Guest

    But the writers don't say who it is. It could be space aliens who spliced our genes together from apes thereby creating us. [​IMG]
     
  19. buckster75

    buckster75 Member

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    it does it matter (in the topic) who it really was (God of course)but who they thought it was.
     
  20. OCC

    OCC Guest

    Ok. I'm just saying that they said "God"...and one can come up with various interpretations of who this God was. Unless they specify it's Jesus Christ, we don't know if they mean Jesus Christ.
     
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