Featured Are we now living in the Messainic Age promised thru the OT Prophets/NT Apostles?

I really prefer to not discuss anything with you DHK but sometimes your posts are so irrational and unbiblical I feel I must rebut them. A perfect example is the following post:

You have blasphemed God and that is the truth!

That is an asinine remark after you took it upon yourself to rewrite Psalms 14:1.

That Psalm states:

Psalms 14:1. KJV
The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.

Psalms 14:1. NASB
The fool has said in his heart, “There is no God.” They are corrupt, they have committed abominable deeds; There is no one who does good.

You can believe what you want. DHK, I told you before that you are not sufficiently mature to insult me. It is you who have wrapped yourself in dispensational error. Like many dispensationalists you believe you are spiritually superior to most Christians because you have received the revelation of Darby's dispensational teaching!

 

That is not an example; but it is a refusal for you to engage in debate/discussion on Rom.2:27-29. It appears you have no rational answer for that passage.

That is a false allegation which you continue to make.
I quoted word for word part of a verse. I told you the reason why.
Yet still you let your emotions rule your brain. Sad.

You write a statement like this when I ask you to stop with the name-calling. Enough is enough OR.

Just more false accusations and name-calling.
And yet you can't give any exposition of Romans 2:27-29? Why is that?

 

I gave an explanation and backed it up with Scripture from Philippians and Colossians. If you are unable to comprehend that is your problem!

 

I cannot comprehend that which is not written.
I gave my explanation in post #40.
Where is your response? I have looked through the thread. I have found no scriptural response to it whatsoever. Perhaps you can provide a link or direct me to it.

 

I did not respond to post 40 directly because it was addressed to Bosley. He responded to you in post #43. I did present a Scriptural response in post #43. I notice one statement you make in post 40, essentially a paraphrase of Romans 2:29 which indicates you have some understanding.

I would point out what Paul says of the Christian in Colossians 2:11 compared to what he says in Romans 2:29 as I have done on numerous occasions.

Romans 2:29 KJV
29. But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Colossians 2:11 KJV
11.In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

If you are unable to see the direct comparison of the spiritual Jew and the Christian it is because of your dispensational bias. And as far as I am concerned that is the end of the story.

 

Quoting or even referring me to Col.2:11 has nothing to do with an explanation of Rom.2:27-29.
You seem reluctant to do that. You quote vs. 29 below, but being able to copy and paste verse is not the answer I am looking for. It doesn't answer any questions does it?

There is none. Like other verses you ignore context in Colossians chapter two as well. In Colossians two, from verse 8 to 23, Paul gives the Colossians instruction on false philosophy.
That is the context.
In verses 8-10 he addresses gnosticism.
In verses 11-17 he addresses legalism, the legalism brought on by the Judaizers. This is similar to the previous passage that I already explained in Philippians. Gentile Christians have no reason to be circumcised physically such as Jewish Christians already had. The "spiritual" circumcision was already done at the cross by Christ and not by man.
This has nothing to do with the Christian or church being an extension of Israel.

It has as much to do with replacement theology as atheism does with Psalm 14:1--none!!
Stop taking Scripture out of context.
You are unable to explain the Scripture yourself.
The insulting comment:

If you are unable to see the direct comparison of the spiritual Jew and the Christian it is because of your dispensational bias.

This statement of yours simply demonstrates that you are unable to expound the Scriptures for yourself. You don't know what they mean. Your proof-texts fail you.

 

You are a real piece of work, DHK. If you think that you can understand Scripture without considering what the whole of Scripture says you have much to learn. Interpretation of Scripture requires context, context, context, that is Chapter, Book, and Bible. That is where you dispensationalists go wrong. You attempt to isolate what Scripture says about Israel/Jew from all the rest of Scripture. Darby and his disciples decided that the word Israel always means national Israel when the Scripture tells you different. In fact as I have noted before Jesus Christ cut the nation of Israel off when HE said:

Matthew 21:43 Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof.

That Scripture is reminiscent of the Verse from the Old Testament when God spoke of the rebellious and adulterous Northern Tribes:

Hosea 4:17 Ephraim is joined to idols: let him alone.

Did the Northern tribes return from captivity in Assyria,DHK?

*****************

You accuse someone of taking Scripture out of context and then make the following blasphemous post:

Yes, you are a real 'piece of work'.

 

We can see from the above post that there is no rebuttal, not even an attempt to answer or explain Romans 2:27-29, or the additional verse that you gave in Col.2:11 which I graciously answered for you.

You answered with a rant, name-calling, innuendo, and a post that deserves an infraction.
Instead of going off on a rant and attacking me, why not answer the Scripture given.