Authority to call one version superior?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by CarpentersApprentice, Jan 29, 2007.

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  1. CarpentersApprentice

    CarpentersApprentice
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    On what authority is one translation or version of the Bible accepted as superior to another?

    It seems there is an endless debate about KJV vs. all others, or which board of translators was best, or which manuscripts are better. Who has the authority to decide? If we are all on our own, how do we get around the biblical admonition that "no Scripture is of any private interpretation"?

    Thanks.

    CA
     
  2. Pastor Larry

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    The biblical admonition that "no Scripture is of private interpretation" deals with the origin of Scripture, that it did not originate in the writer's mind, but rather came from God as the Holy Spirit bore them along.

    Translations are accepted as superior based on their accuracy and faithfulness to the original language texts.
     
  3. Keith M

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    There is nothing in scripture itself that points toward one version as being superior to another. The Bible says that all scripture is given by God's inspiration. As scripture is found in various legitimate Bible translations, then we should all be on our knees thanking God that He has provided scripture for us in various versions that we can understand.

     
  4. Salamander

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    The Harmony of the Scriptures taken in context overirdes anyone else's opinions.

    One has to twist the Scripture found in the KJB to speak against it.

    When they cannot convince others by that method, they must then attack either King james or the translators.

    All one has to do is research the accusations against the KJB and they will find the attacks are unfounded.
     
  5. Mexdeaf

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    :sleeping_2:
     
  6. robycop3

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    Salamander:The Harmony of the Scriptures taken in context overirdes anyone else's opinions.

    Actually, the KJVOs believe their opinion and guesswork overrides the truth.

    One has to twist the Scripture found in the KJB to speak against it.

    Actually, the KJVOs hafta twist both Scripture and other fact to say the KJV is superior. This is evident by the way they twist Psalm 12:6-7.

    When they cannot convince others by that method, they must then attack either King james or the translators.

    Actually, it's the KJVOs task to try to convince anyone they're right. We Freedom Readers need only to deny KJVO becausa its lacka supporting evidence.

    All one has to do is research the accusations against the KJB and they will find the attacks are unfounded.

    Actually, all one hasta do is research the points made in pro-KJVO boox to see they're wrong.
     
  7. franklinmonroe

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    CA, lets start here. It is more precisely "no prophecy of the scripture..."--
    First, it seems that there is more than one way to understand this verse; some think that this verse means that: the reader should not come to an independant conclusion about a passage. However, another way to understand this verse is that: the writers did not compose their own ideas into the text.
    Second, what were the "scriptures" to Peter? He most likely considered the Hebrew writings (Pentetuch, the Prophets, and perhaps the poetic books) as holy scripture. Most scholars do not put the closing of the Hebrew scriptures until about the 3rd century AD.

    I doubt very much Peter and most of the other Greek NT writers knew that their letters, and gospels, would become sacred documents. Peter himself may not have been privledged to have read all of Paul's letters, or all four gospels. It is speculated that II Peter was one of the very last of the apostolic books to be written, but even so, there is no evidence that all 27 'NT' books was bound with the 22(27) 'OT' books during late 1st and early 2nd century AD (II Peter itself was one of the last books to be accepted as canonical.) Therefore, is doubtful that we can literally apply this verse to the completed Bible, as we know it today.
     
    #7 franklinmonroe, Jan 29, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Jan 29, 2007
  8. Salamander

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    Then by your defintion I am not KJVO

    Bible doctrine overrides your estimation of that Scripture. You can't have it both ways or anyway you choose this week.

    The Word of God proves otherwise and is the Authority, roby3cop is not.

    Oh, ok, so your ideal is now more correct than the Word of God itsself!:laugh:

    It'll be a few days, but I'm sure this too will be closed by Roger's MO- the only cure for your irregularity!:tonofbricks:
     
  9. NaasPreacher (C4K)

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    If this becomes a discussion of KJVO it will be closed without warning.

    Stay on topic - do not get sidetracked.
     
  10. TomVols

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    One has to twist the Scripture found in the NASB to speak against it. One has to twist the Scripture found in the ESV to speak against it. One has to twist the Scripture found in the NKJV to speak against it. One has to.....you get the idea.
     
  11. robycop3

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    "Superior', as "wisdom", is justified of her children.
     
  12. Keith M

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    Such authority is not found anywhere in scripture, therefore this "authority" is from man. Even if one misinterprets Psalm 12:7 as a reference to preserving God's word rather than the preserving of the faithful who are oppressed, there is still no scriptural authority by which we can declare one version superior to another.

    Since we no longer have the original autographs, it is impossible to point to any one set of manuscripts as being superior to the others. There is opinion as to which manuscripts may be more accurate, but there is no proof.

    As for which board of translators was best, we should take into account that God can use sinful people to bring about something that is good. There was sin in the life of every translator of every Bible version we have. There was sin in the lives of the people who wrote the various books we call our Bible. If God had wanted to use people with no sin in their lives, then the Bible would remain unwritten. So while there was sin in the lives of every translator, there is also sin in all of our lives. Those who live in glass houses...

     
    #12 Keith M, Jan 30, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Jan 30, 2007
  13. CarpentersApprentice

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    That shounds reasonable.

    What generally accepted standard of accuracy and faithfulness should people, for example Salamander and robycop3, use to determine which translation of the Bible is the best one?

    CA
     
  14. CarpentersApprentice

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    It sounds reasonable, too.
     
  15. av1611jim

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    When I read ..."shounds" reasonable......my first thought was you had been a little too long in the varnish booth friend carpenter!!! LOL:laugh: :laugh:
     
  16. av1611jim

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    And now back to our regualrly scheduled discussion.

    There is abosolutely no criteria which either side of the fence can produce which will be accepted by the other. As one has already pointed out, we are severally and independantly left to our OWN walk with God as to how we come to such a conclusion as "Which MSS/Translation is superior",.

    My reason for saying such is that we no longer have the Original autographs of the Scripture. Hence, my friend, though you will hear much hoopla from either side, you will not hear much fact. One side will offer a few convincing reason (in thier own mind) as well as the other side will do the same.

    One man here calls it OPINION, or PREFERENCE.
    I choose to call it faith.

    I like Bible words. Haven't found the word "opinion" or "preference" in my Bible but it has MUCH to say about faith.

    Hope that helps give a little balance to this discussion.
     
  17. NaasPreacher (C4K)

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    How about "let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind" Jim? In areas like this God gave us the ability to weigh out our options and make reasonable choice.
     
  18. robycop3

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    What you call "faith", jim, is *BLIND* faith. It has no substance or evidence as BIBLICAL faith has. Therefore it's really either personal preference(correct) or GUESSWORK.(INcorrect)

    Comparing the superiority of versions is another apples/oranges comparison. Different folks understand different versions better than any others. God did NOT make any "one size fits all" version.
     
  19. Lacy Evans

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    It is absolutely not blind faith.

    It is backed up by the same type of evidence that supports the "66 book only" position concerning the closed canon.

    In other words, if the OP had asked "Who has the authority to pick which books are to be included/accepted as scripture and which are not?" the answer would have been of the same type and verified by the same type of evidence.

    Lacy
     
  20. bobbyd

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    In some cases i think it is more audacity than "authority" involved in making a designated translation to be "superior".
     
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