AV1611 Translator Sidenotes 3: S.Iohn

Continuing a study of the translater footnotes
of the King James Version (AKA: Authorized Version),
1611 Edition (KJV1611AV).

Study for the Gofpel according to S. Iohn.

 

S.Iohn I:12 (KJV1611):

"But as many as receiued him, to
them gaue hee ||power to become the
sonnes of God, euen to them that beleeue
on his Name :

||Or, the right or privelege.

S.Iohn I:12 (KJV1611alt1):

"But as many as receiued him, to
them gaue hee the right to become the
sonnes of God, euen to them that beleeue
on his Name :

S.Iohn I:12 (KJV1611alt2):

"But as many as receiued him, to
them gaue hee the privelege to become the
sonnes of God, euen to them that beleeue
on his Name :

Again, multiple transaltions help one determine
the sense of the scripture. Here where
"power" has become something you plug into, we
really don't usually construe of "power"
as meaning "right" or privelege, but here it
would. Not the far cry in the KJV1611
from the intentionally deceptive usual
KJV1769 (or 1762/) which has no translator
margin-note. The propogandist of KJVO
appear to be trying to deceive and end up
being like the great Roman Catholic Church
of the middle ages: denying the scripture
to the common person and assuring that only
the ones who profit can be a prophet.

John 1:12 (AMplified Bible):

But to as many as did receive and
welcome Him, He gave the authority
(power, priviledge, right) to become the
children of God, that is, to those who
believe in (adhere to, trust in, and rely on)
His name.

NIV, NLT, NASB - "right"

 

S.Iohn I:21 (KJV1611):

and they asked him, What then?
Art thou Elias? And he saith, I am
not. Art thou ||that prophet? And hee
answered, No.

Sidenote: || Or, a Prophet.

S.Iohn I:21 (KJV1611alt):

and they asked him, What then?
Art thou Elias? And he saith, I am
not. Art thou a prophet? And hee
answered, No.

BTW, "that prophet" is mentioned
again in v. 24 (there without the
sidenote). So no "one-verse doctrine"
is ruined here

John 1:21 (GNT = The Good News Translation)

"Who are you, then?" they asked.
"Are you Elijah?" R2 "No, I am not,"
John answered. ¶ "Are you
the Prophet?" F2 they asked. ¶ "No," he replied.

-----------------------------------------------
FOOTNOTES:
F2: the prophet: [The one who was expected to appear and announce the coming of the Messiah.]

The new "southren baptist" bible follows
the primary KJV reading:
John 1:21 (HCSB = The Holman Christian Standard Bible)

"What then?" they asked him. "Are you Elijah?"
"I am not," he said.
"Are you the Prophet?" "No," he answered.


NASB follows the primary KJV reading,
nowhere do i see any KJVO credit
for so doing
John 1:21 (NASB):

1:21
They asked him, "What then? Are you Elijah?"
And he said, "I am not." "Are you
the Prophet?" And he answered, "No."

NIV and NLT both follow the primary
KJV reading.

 

S.Iohn I:29 (KJV1611):

The next day, Iohn seeth Iesus
comming vnto him, and saith, Behold
the Lambe of God, which ||taketh
away the sinne of the world.

Sidenote: || Or. beareth.

S.Iohn I:29 (KJV1611alt):

The next day, Iohn seeth Iesus
comming vnto him, and saith, Behold
the Lambe of God, which beareth
away the sinne of the world.

NIV, NLT, NASB all use "take".

Of course, this is meaningless to the
KJVO, for they are always wrong that
is not one of the KJVs.

 

S.Iohn III:3 (KJV1611):

Iesus answered, and said vnto
him, Verily, verily I say vnto thee, except
a man be borne ||againe, he cannot
see the kingdome of God.

Sidenote: || Or, from above

S.Iohn III:3 (KJV1611alt):

Iesus answered, and said vnto
him, Verily, verily I say vnto thee, except
a man be borne from above, he cannot
see the kingdome of God.[/b]

Woah, wouldn't that change doctrine?
Well maybe wording?
Where would be "born again"?

Guess what, the phrase appears elsewhere:

Joh 3:3 (nKJV)
Jesus answered and said to him, "Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God."

Joh 3:7 (nKJV)
Do not marvel that I said to you, 'You must be born again.'

1Pe 1:23 (nKJV)
having been born again, not of corruptible seed but incorruptible, through the word of God which lives and abides forever,

The NIV, NLT, and NASB all say
"born again" and all footnote "born from above".

 

S.Iohn I:41 (KJV1611):

He first findeth his owne brother
Simon, and saith vnto him, We haue
found the Messias, which is, being
interpreted, ||the Christ.

||Or, the anointed.

S.Iohn I:41 (KJV1611alt):

He first findeth his owne brother
Simon, and saith vnto him, We haue
found the Messias, which is, being
interpreted, the anointed.

Interesting, the translators of the
KJV give the translation in Greek (Christ)
and in English (the anointed).

The NIV and NLT both give "Christ" without footnote.
The NASB gives "Christ" in the text but
in the footnote: "Gr Anointed One".

 

The unknown KJV (may be KJV1769): no footnotes.
KJV1873 - Christ in the body, "the Anointed" in the footnote.
(note that the KJV1873 is different from the KJV1611
for in the KJV1873 "Anointed" is capital whereas
in the KJV1611 "anointed" starts with a small letter)

 

S.Iohn I:42 (KJV1611):

And he brought him to Iesus.
And when Iesus beheld him, he said,
Thou are Simon, the sonne of Iona,
thou shalt be called Cephas, which is
by interperation, ||a stone.

Sidenote: || Or, Peter.

S.Iohn I:42 (KJV1611alt):

And he brought him to Iesus.
And when Iesus beheld him, he said,
Thou are Simon, the sonne of Iona,
thou shalt be called Cephas, which is
by interperation, Peter.

Well, seems the translators of the KJV
know more about translation than most
KJV-onlists. The primary reading is
in English, the Secondary reading is
in Greek. But we call the man "Peter"
not "A Stone".

NIV has "Peter" in the text and in the
footnote: "Both Cephas (Aramiac) and
Peter (Greek) mean rock./

NLT has "Peter" in the text and in
the footnote: "The names Cephas
and Peter both mean "rock" "

NASB has "Peter" in the text and
in the footnote: "Rock or Stone"

 

I call it my "prayer bible"
When i go into my closet to pray,
that is were i read it

 

S.Iohn III:20 (KJV1611):

For euery one that doeth euill, hateth
the light, neither commeth to the
light, lest his deeds should be ||reproued.

Sidenote: || Or, discouered.

S.Iohn III:20 (KJV1611alt):

For euery one that doeth euill, hateth
the light, neither commeth to the
light, lest his deeds should be discouered.

I have no idea what "reproued" meant in
1611. But i know "discovered" in 2004
means "found out"

The alternate is similiar to:
Numbers 32:23 (KJV1769):
But if ye will not do so, behold, ye have sinned against
the LORD: and be sure your sin will find you out.

My major Bible reads here as the alternate
only using the term "exposed".

John 3:20 (HCSB)
For everyone who practices wicked things
hates the light and avoids it, so that
his deeds may not be exposed.

NIT - exposed, the secondary in the KJV
NLT - punished, the primary in the KJV
NASB - exposed, the secondary in the KJV

So the NIT and NASB are damned here for
taking the secondary KJV reading and starting
new doctrines. The NLT can wait until latter
to be condemned

 

The term "Christ" is a stumbling block to
millions of Jews both alive today and who
died in the past. The banner "CHrist" has
been misued by evil people who have killed
millions of Jews.

Jesus is the Christ.
The term "Christ" offends Jews.
"Christ" is Greek for "the anointed".

"Messiah" is Hebrew for "the anointed".
The term "Messiah" does NOT offend Jews.
Jesus is the Messiah.
(In fact, while you are using Hebrew terms,
might as well use "Yeshua" which is in
Hebrew as "Jesus" in English (Or "Iesus" is
for you KJV fans).)

Genesis 12:3 (KJV1769):

And I will bless them that bless thee,
and curse him that curseth thee:

To use the term "Christ" to a Jew is to
curse Abraham and risk being cursed
yourself.

Interesting that some are so hot to defend a
Greek term "Christ" that offend Jews
when there is a perfectly Good English Term:
"Anointed One". Thank you, reminds me of another
double standard

 

I cannot answer your question,
but it is your problem.
What is "God's word"?

There are the only two choices:

1. the written word of God: the Holy Bible
2. the living word of God: Messiah Yeshua

 

S.Iohn III:27 (KJV1611):

Iohn answered, and said, A man
can ||receiue nothing, except it be giuen
him from heauen.

Sidenote: || OR, take vnto himselfe.

S.Iohn III:27 (KJV1611alt):

Iohn answered, and said, A man
can take vnto himselfe nothing, except it be giuen
him from heauen.

John 3:27 (KJV1769maybe):

John answered and said, A man can receive
nothing, except it be given him from
heaven.

Notice the changes from the PERFECT KJV1611
to the PERFECTER KJV1769:
- comma after answered
- J, I now do the work I did alone then
- V, U have exchanged roles
- many silent "e"s gone

Notice how much more vital the alternate is than
the later selection: the later KJV1769 implies
that only if a man is given something does it
come from heaven. The earler 1611 alternative
is STRONG: even should a man take by force
something, it is still coming from heaven.

The NIV takes the weak: "only what is given him".
The NLT is strong: "God in heaven appoints
each person's work".

The NASB is weak: "can receive nothing".

 

Unlike modern books, with the translator margin notes at the
bottom (footnotes), the KJV1611 Edition had margin notes
at the side (sidenotes). Some margin notes denote
similar verses in the Bible (these will not be covered
in this series of topics). Some margin notes start
with "Or", these denote alternate translations, that is
the single Hebrew or Greek term and have variant meanings
(according to context and other rules of translating).
This is the most common type (694 in the New Testament).
Some margin notes start with "Gr." These margin notes
show a variation because of variant Greek sources
(in the New Testament, some 37 cases). These Greeks sources
are collectively known as the TR = Textus Receptus.

Today we have a simple variant translation:

S.Iohn IIII:46 (KJV1611):

So Iesus came againe int Canna
of Galiee, where hee made the water
wine. ANd there was a certaine
||noble man, whose sonne was sicke at
Capernaum.

||Or, Courtier, or ruler.

S.Iohn IIII:46 (KJV1611alt1):

So Iesus came againe int Canna
of Galiee, where hee made the water
wine. And there was a certaine
Courtier, whose sonne was sicke at
Capernaum.

S.Iohn IIII:46 (KJV1611alt2):

So Iesus came againe int Canna
of Galiee, where hee made the water
wine. And there was a certaine
ruler, whose sonne was sicke at
Capernaum.

The terms suggest several variants
for what are now collectively
called middle level managers (of Government).

How do the others handle it?

KJV1873 - one word (the 1611 was two words):
"nobleman" with the same footnote

NIV - "royal official", no footnote

NLT - Instead of "certain noble man" has
"government official", no footnote

NASB - Instead of "certain noble man" has
"royal official", no footnote

As in all cases with the Holy Bible in multiple
versions: the words are different, the meanings
are the same. Here an unnamed government (then royal)
person comes to Jesus with a son, sick to death.

The important thing here is to see Jesus,
not try to figure out the name and specific
job series of the man to appealed to Jesus.

 

S.Iohn V:2 (KJV1611):

Now there is at Hierusalem
by the sheepe ||market, a poole,
which is called in the Hebrew tongue
Bethesda, having five porches.

||Or, gate.

S.Iohn V:2 (KJV1611alt):

Now there is at Hierusalem
by the sheepe gate, a poole,
which is called in the Hebrew tongue
Bethesda, having five porches.

John 5:2 (KJV1769):

Now there is at Jerusalem
by the sheep market a pool,
which is called in the Hebrew tongue
Bethesda, having five porches.

John 5:3 (HCSB):

By the Sheep Gate in Jerusalem
there is a pool,
called Bethesda in Hebrew,
which has five colonnades.

John 5:3 (NLT):

Inside the city,
near the Sheep Gate,
was the pool of Bethesda,
with five covered porches.

John 5:3 (NASB):

Now there is in Jerusalem
by the sheep gate a pool,
which is called in Hebrew Bethesda,
having five porticoes.

Yep, all those evil MVs have "gate",
the REAL KJVs second choice. But then,
most KJVOs don't read the Real KJV1611
but the MV-KJV1769