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Baptists and Bible Sex?

Discussion in 'Free-For-All Archives' started by Netcurtains3, Dec 27, 2002.

  1. Netcurtains3

    Netcurtains3 Guest

  2. Lone Wolf

    Lone Wolf New Member

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    No, I'm not.
     
  3. Australian Baptist Student

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    Hi Neal, I too am a fan of Hebrew.
    Shalom, Colin
     
  4. SolaScriptura in 2003

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    To make an argument from Latin grammar would not be any clearer than one from English since both English and Latin would be translations. If you are wanting to make some heavy grammatical arguments you need to use Hebrew in the OT and Koine Greek in the NT. And what's all this about reviving these languages? Many people DO study them and make arguments from the grammar -- and Protestant arguments on Mt 16:16 actually make sence. Jesus would not use 2 separate words with differing gender in the same sentence for one thing! You can say "well, it's not 2 different words with differing genders in Latin" or "It WOULDN'T be 2 different words with differing genders in Aramaic" but that's just a cheap dodge that shows Romanists don't believe in the plenary inspiration of the Scriptures. I firmly believe that each and everyword in the Scriptures was exactly inspired by God and that the fact the Jesus used 2 different words with differing genders in Mt 16:16 in Koine Greek can be depended on due to that FACT.

    [ January 02, 2003, 01:52 AM: Message edited by: SolaScriptura in 2003 ]
     
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