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Become one flesh

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by Plain ol' Ralph, Oct 11, 2004.

  1. dianetavegia

    dianetavegia Guest

    I'm about to head to bed and don't want to be accused of a hit and run... but I disagree Marcia.

    The scripture says...

    Mark 10:3 And he answered and said unto them, What did Moses command you? 4 And they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away. 5 And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept. 6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. 7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife; 8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh. 9 What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. 10 And in the house his disciples asked him again of the same matter. 11 And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. 12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.
     
  2. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    There are many instances where Jesus reaffirmed the original intent of God as He does here, but this does not mean that what was given in the OT was not from God. Another example is the "eye for an eye" law/regulation.

    Are we saying Deut 19 is not from God either?

    Once again, I challenge those who say the divorce decree in Deut 24 was not from God but from Moses to tell us which laws, then, in Deut 24 19, and in Deut itself, came from God and which came from Moses only?
     
  3. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    Christ does give an exclusion in the following verse:

    Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
     
  4. Sularis

    Sularis Member

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    I owe Larry an apology

    I did say hope your partner bites it
    and while it was a little harsh - it was taken out of context - that makes it sounds extremely cruel and even a personal attack - I never said that directly

    Context Larry context
    In your post on page 4, from October 19, 2004 12:59 AM, you said Scripture clearly states that divorced stay divorced or reconcile or hope their partner bites it. You may have forgotten you said it, but you did. You were out of line.

    It looked like you read the whole post but then you focussed on one part - DEATH is the only breaker of the union that God makes - there is not a nice way to say wait until your ex dies so that you are free to remarry.

    So again I apologize for my poor choice of words - but I stand by the meaning and for that I will not apologize - Death is the only thing that abrogates the marital union.
     
  5. manchester

    manchester New Member

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    Some interpret that word "fornication" (porneia) to mean that the only justification for divorce is not adultery, but cases where the couple finds out they are biologically related. I don't agree with that.

    Don't the other verses exclude any exception allowing divorce?
     
  6. Plain ol' Ralph

    Plain ol' Ralph New Member

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    Better pay close attention to what Jesus said, then as Diane posted, "Moses suffered", not God commanded, BIG difference huh? But then Jesus did confirm,uh, FULFILL the Law, by stating, "He which marrieth her that has been put away COMMITTETH ADULTRY" So if yall want to keep pitting God against His own Command to abstain from worldly lusts and all sin, then GO'HEAD! Not me!!

    Death is still God's way of releasing the spouse from the marraige vow, only hardhearted men divorce, failing to see their own sin as co-equal in departing from the vow as well.

    I know, those of you totally disregard Romans 7 and apply it only to being under the Law and then becoming dead to it, but then that in itself, when taken as yall do, speaks evil of the Law of God, not advisable; we become "dead" to the penalty of breaking the Law + we are "dead" to the ceremonial aspects of the law by receiving the gift of Grace, but then Grace also gives a stiffer mandate: ".. Even to look upon a woman with lust.. committeth adultry with her already"

    Uh?Hmm?

    So by some's estimation, does this too "justify" divorce everytime a man looked at a nearly naked woman? NO!
     
  7. Sularis

    Sularis Member

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    I was just doing a quick glance through again using the phrase put away - I use Online Bible

    and I came across certain verses that I thought interesting

    Lev 21:7,13-14
    similar
    Eze 44:22

    Are we not a royal priesthood?

    Just a thought
     
  8. Plain ol' Ralph

    Plain ol' Ralph New Member

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    Good thought for those of us who believe the Bible! [​IMG]
     
  9. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    Please note in Mark 10 that it's the Pharisees who say, "Moses permitted," not Jesus. That little fact was not noted by you.

    In Mk 7.10, Jesus says this:
    So does this mean one of the commandments was Moses' idea? But yet we have Jesus saying, "Moses said."

    I am still waiting for you to point in Deut. which laws are from God and which were ones Moses made up himself. Can you show me which were from Moses even though all these string of laws begin with this statement in Deut 12.1:
     
  10. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    You realize, don't you, that the 1611 meaning of "suffer" is "to permit" or "to allow".
     
  11. Plain ol' Ralph

    Plain ol' Ralph New Member

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    Please note in Mark 10 that it's the Pharisees who say, "Moses permitted," not Jesus. That little fact was not noted by you. </font>[/QUOTE]You would have to admit, dear, that Jesus did try much to straighten Moses out, including Moses' allowance for hardness of heart to over-ride the very thing God institued and calls "Holy ", (Uh, Holy Matrimony, that is), so anything Moses said that goes against what God ordained , or that follows the order of the Aaronic preisthood, well need i say more? Or now do I need to teach you more of the New Testament in regards to O.T. Law?

    But then... I really am amazed at the intentional blindness to the facts are so prevelent.
     
  12. Plain ol' Ralph

    Plain ol' Ralph New Member

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    You realize, don't you, that the 1611 meaning of "suffer" is "to permit" or "to allow". </font>[/QUOTE]You do realize that Moses is the "man" and not the Law of God in that passage don't you?
     
  13. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Thanks for being infantile and not answering my sincere question.
     
  14. Plain ol' Ralph

    Plain ol' Ralph New Member

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    Oh, so giving you the Truth is "infantile"? [​IMG] :rolleyes:
     
  15. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    POR, I am still waiting for you to decipher which laws and commandments from Deut. 12 through 24 are from God and which are ones Moses thought up, since Deut 12.1 clearly states that ALL the following commandments are from the Lord. These continue in a string of statements through 24, which is the chapter giving the divorce decrees.

    Please start with 12.1 and go through 24 and enligthen us as to which one of those commandments are not from God.
     
  16. Plain ol' Ralph

    Plain ol' Ralph New Member

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    Marcia, Jesus did that for us all in Matt. 5 and 19. That is clear enough for me, why isn't it clear enough for you? I can only suppose what you disagree with God about is somehow being taken out against me and you're trying to push the letter of the Law against me; that is never advisable. Jesus came to fulfill the Law, not break it in any fashion, so it is therefore, uh, therefore, Clear that He is right and Moses, in his "suffering"/ allowing divorce to negate that Which God institued as Holy and not able to be put asunder by men, including the man Moses, was wrong, again. I can only advise everyone to learn how to interpret Scripture w/o pitting Scripture against Scripture and allowing our emotional interpretation of it to over-ride Scripture, that is where Moses failed, (learn that), and that is where men fail, also. Divorce is where men fail in the area of forgiveness and thinking their sin is somehow less than that of their spouse's sin. God instituted the marriage as that which is honourable above all things, the marriage bed undefiled, (uh, remember, this is about MARRIAGE, divorce is contrary to marriage and is also contrary to the topic).

    God is in the process of REDEEMING Israel, whom He only gave the "bill" of divorcement. In that light, Israel is the "wife" of God the Father, the Church being the Bride of Christ, the Son; Now we wouldn't have the Father and the Son both "married" to the same Bride would we?

    "God put away Israel just so His Only Begotten Son's Blood could redeem her and become His Bride"? Uh, GET REAL!! :rolleyes: :rolleyes: :rolleyes:
     
  17. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    No, refusing to answer my question is infantile. I asked a sincere question, and you reply with complete insincerity in an infantile spirit. Answer my question.

    You realize, don't you, that the 1611 meaning of "suffer" is "to permit" or "to allow".
     
  18. Plain ol' Ralph

    Plain ol' Ralph New Member

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    Yes, I do, John and YOU KNOW THAT! All you're doing is carrying out your same little game of trying to negate Scripture again.

    Also, you have made my point, and the LOrd's POINT! that Moses "suffered"/ allowed/ permitted/ etc. divorce, where God NEVER DID!!

    So stop for once and forever with your denigration of your brother's character! Or is that your motive? It appears that way!! :mad:
     
  19. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    POR says: Jesus did try much to straighten Moses out, including Moses' allowance for hardness of heart to over-ride the very thing God institued and calls "Holy ", (Uh, Holy Matrimony, that is), so anything Moses said that goes against what God ordained , or that follows the order of the Aaronic preisthood, well need i say more?

    Sounds to me like you're saying your kjVERSION contradicts itself, or that God contradicts himself.....Can't have it both ways, Ralph. You say the kjVERSION is the perfectly preserved WOG, yet you pretty much say Jesus had to set Moses straight. Contradiction, friend. It's just not gonna wash and further proves the falseness of the doctrine of kjVERSION onlyism and how other doctrines are twisted to fit the position instead of the positions twisted to fit the doctrine. :rolleyes: :rolleyes: :rolleyes:
     
  20. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    Also, POR, Jesus did permit divorce. I've given the reference numerous times. Seems you like to avoid that.
     
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