Before the foundation of the world (Kosmos) ?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by percho, Dec 1, 2014.

  1. percho

    percho
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    For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. Col. 1:16 NKJV

    But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born fn (or made) of a woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, that we might receive the adoption as sons. Gal 4:4,5 NKJV

    He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has sinned from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that He might destroy the works of the devil. 1 John 3:8 NKJV

    Inasmuch then as the children have partaken of flesh and blood, He Himself likewise shared in the same, that through (the) death He might destroy him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, Heb 2:14 NKJV

    For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it in hope; because the creation itself also will be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God. Romans 8:20,21 NKJV


    Was the creation of, or the foundation of, the world (Kosmos) to rectify a preexisting problem of to rectify a problem to come?

    Was Adam, subjected to futility for the purpose of hope?

    From/before the foundation of the world was that hope going to come through a woman?
     
  2. OldRegular

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    For those who wonder or confused about the WHY of Creation Revelation 4:11 provides the answer:

    Thou art worthy, O Lord, to receive glory and honour and power: for thou hast created all things, and for thy pleasure they are and were created.

    For an answer to the passage from Romans I suggest you read Haldane's commentary at: http://www.godrules.net/library/haldane/31haldane14.htm
     
    #2 OldRegular, Dec 1, 2014
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  3. percho

    percho
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    Re-addressed!

    Let me rephrase the thoughts.

    He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. 1 John 3:8

    How was the Son of God going to destroy the works of the devil? Are the works of the devil consistent with the power that he has, that is, the power of the death?
    Is, the death, the works of the devil?

    Hebrews 2:14
    Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through the death he (the Son of God, the Son of Man) might destroy him that had the power of the death, that is, the devil;


    Was the first man Adam, created for the very purpose of the Son of God being manifested as the Son of Man, Jesus of Nazareth, that through the death of the Son of Man, the works of the devil and thus the devil himself could be destroyed?
     

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