Featured can catholics Go To God Directly In prayers?

This kind of response, the Roman Catholic response, is simply ignorance to the the use of the keys that was well known in Rabbinic literature. To bind or to loose or to prohibit and allow was merely administrative responses to how they interpreted scriptures through their leading rabbi's. To resolve anyone of sin was based upon the Biblical provision for such.

That is precisely the manner it is used by the church through its ordained leadership - administrative of what scripture has bound or loosed, prohibited or allowed. Remission of sins is through repentance and faith in the preached gospel as commissioned in Luke 24:47 and repeately expressed throughout the scriptures both Old and New Testament (Acts 10:43; Heb. 6:1).

Breathing a special dispensation of the Spirit on them is quite obvious due to the absence of both comforters during that ten day period between Christ's ascension and Pentecost so that they had wisdom and leadership needed to conduct the church business recorded in Acts 1:15-2:1.

This Roman Catholic interpetation comes form the occult and Mystery Babylon where most of its doctrines originate.

 

So you admit there is presedent of a body established by God which has interprative authority of scripture!

Which biblically Jesus gave that provision to the Apostles.

Yep sounds Catholic.

Again Hisop was proven to be in error.

 

No he doesn't. Read it. It speaks of confessing our siins but it doesn't specify who we are to confess them to. You can't seem to understand (or more probably wish to feign ignorance) that when we confess to a priest we are confessing to Jesus. It's just like if you are negotiating a commercial deal with me and I send my lawyer. The lawyer speaks for me and makes commitments for me that I am bound to honor. You aren't negotiating with the lawyer; you are negotiating with me through my lawyer. Same thing with the relation between the priest and the penitant, which is really the relation between God and the penitant, with the priest merely being God's stand in. The priest acts in persona Christi, that is in the person of Christ.

 

Simply because Paul quotes from a heathen writer does not attribute interpretative authority to the writings of that heathen. Simply because Christ selects certain rabbinical expressions does not mean he approves of the rabbinial literature as he quite clearly condemned all such "traditions" that violated the scriptures.

Hence, what he is doing is simply selecting what harmonizes with scripture. The rabbi's themselve claimed their traditions were not legislative in nature as Rome claims, but were administrative in nature and authorized by scriptures and were the conclusons of proper interpretation of the scriptures. Rome has blasphemeously usurped the scriptures claimed legislative privilege that the Rabbi's and rabbinnical literature never claimed legistlative authority.

 

No one says you are not a priest. All Jews were a nation of Priest to the world and they never fulfilled their obligation. And note even this nation of priest had special administrative priests or the levites.

The presbyters or Catholic Priest aren't in the same vein as the Jewish priest but function as church elders and administrative leaders. And the Apostles were given the authority to forgive and retain sins. The passage is clear.

 

LOL!!! He uses a Rabinical expression and understanding and says to his apostles you have the authority to bind and loose to forgive and retain. Because his apostles were all jewish and understood things in a jewish context and now you are saying we used something they understood quite clearly but didn't mean it? Basically your version of the event was jesus saying "you guys have this authority...Psych! Didn't mean it. I was just goofing!" Jesus used the Jewish context to emphasize his point. And certianly Jews had the law thus weren't entirely heathen.

 

We have no need of levites certainly have need of Church leaders or the presbytery. And when you God to confession you and the priest God directly before God.

Indeed the passage is clear. Jesus gave his apostles the authority to forgive and to retain sin.

 

No one said we can't go directly to Jesus. You're tossing out a straw man here because you have nowhere else to go in this debate. Go back and read Post #29 which I posted on this very issue. I would say you just don't get it, but I believe you just don't want to get because if you did get it you would have to accept sacraments like all right thinking Christians do.

 

Amazing, just uttterly amazing!!! Go back and read what I said and try it again. They did not have LEGISLATIVE authority and never claimed it. Their claim was based upon administering what they perceived to be already established by scriptures. That is precisely what Jesus is approving and this authority is given a PLURAL "you" identified contextually as "the church" (Mt. 16:18-19 with 18:17-18).

In contrast, Rome is usurping the Scriptures as final authority and claiming LEGISLATIVE authority which the Rabbi's would never dream of claiming.

One more proof of Babylonian Roman CAtholicism.

 

No matter how you try to spin it, a clear, simple reading of the word of God tells us that Christ gave the power to forgive sin in His name to the Apostles. Confessing to a priest is biblical. In John 20, we read of Christ appearing to the disciples on Easter Sunday. He breathed on the apostles giving them the authority to forgive, and not to forgive. This means they had to hear the sins in order to forgive/not forgive. Jesus then says “as the Father has sent me, so I send you”. This clearly means the apostles are to continue Christ’s mission, the essence of which is the forgiveness of sins. In 2 Corinthians, St. Paul describes the apostles as ambassadors of Christ’s work of reconciliation. In the Epistle of James we read that the presbyters (priests) are called to pray for the sick and forgive their sins. Why are priests called to perform this task? Obviously, the priests have an authority that ordinary Christians do not. It is clear that Christ gave the apostles the power to forgive sins.

 

Q

First, you have no way to prove that he was speaking only to the apostles in that context because Acts 1:21-22 asserts that others were continually ASSEMBLING with Christ from the baptism of John to the ascension or else they would have no one to choose to replace Judas. So you cannot prove this is said to merely apostles but could have been directed to the whole church. Moreover, Matthew 18:17-18 grammatically demands the keys are in the hands of the whole "church" not its eldership or else step two in Matthew 18:16 would be call the elders and/or step three would be call the elders.

No Apostle claimed this right and Paul provides more written literature on remission of sins than any apostle and yet he never claimed the ROMAN CATHOLIC interpetation of these words.

It is not Biblical and you have absolutely no scripture to show it is Biblical.

No different than John hearing the confession of sins prior to baptizing those who believed in Christ (Jn. 3:36) demanding "fruits meet for repentance" for baptism.

FALSE! Paul described every reconciled believer as ambassordors of Christ and this is in the context of redemption.

2 Cor. 5:18 And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation;

Are you saying that the only ones Christ reconciled were apostles ("us") because the same "us" reconciled is the same "us" given the ministry of reconciliation.

No, we do not read that. TFirst, the term prebuteros does not mean priest and never will in the New Testament church institution. Second, no mention of confession of their sins to the elders. They are instructed to confess their faults to "ONE ANOTHER" which by its very meaning includes the KIND OF PERSON confessing sin to be the kind of person the sin is confessed unto. Are you saying the church is made up of only elders??????

No such office in the church institution. No such word used to describe a preist. Every church member is a "priest" in regard to DIRECT ACCESS to God through Christ - Heb. 10:19-25.

 

You don't understand Judaism then. They absolutely did. And Jesus is providing authority to his apostles.

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Again Hisop was wrong.

 

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