Here is a situation that I had last week....I'd be interested in your thoughts, and if anyone else would respond the same way I did. I had a guy question me about the HCSB, particularly on Matthew 4 when Jesus is tempted by Satan. He pointed out that the HCSB capitalizes "D" when referring to the "Devil". He wanted to know why, since the KJV (go figure) does not capitalize it. There are also a handful of other translations that do not. Now, my response was this: Basically, this is an English grammar issue, not a matter of recognition for or against the Devil. The translators were wanting to make the reader aware that in this story it is THE Devil...as in Satan, tempting Jesus. Therefore, they capitalized the first letter since it is a proper noun. Just as you or I would capitalize the first letters of our names. He wasn't satisfied, and questioned the quality of the translation based on a letter! In his own words, he said that it gives the devil more credit than what he's worth. I explained that it has nothing to do with how bad he is, or how good he isn't! What do you guys think? Do you think I am correct in why the translators of the HCSB (described as a dynamic equivolent translation) capitalized the "d"?