Is there any significance to Paul's use of the phrase "Christ Jesus" versus his use of the phrase "Jesus Christ" in 1 Timothy (and perhaps elsewhere)? The discussion came up in a study on 1 Timothy and I am curious as to the input any scholars can provide. For what it is worth, with limited resources available to me at the moment it looks like most occurences (perhaps all?) in 1 Timothy in Greek read "Christ Jesus". So why the change in English (KJV - and no, this is not a KJV discussion, I simply have not had opportunity to check other versions for their readings)? Any thoughts?