I have asked this question in another thread, but it has been either assiduosly ignored or avoided. This is not a trick question, I am genuinely interested in an answer from a Calvinistic perspective. How do Calvinists explain the story of Cornelius in Acts 10-11 in regard to total inability. Cornelius is described as a God fearing, devout gentile who prays to God. Yet he is unregenerate. The angel who God sends to him explains that he will hear the gospel by which he "will be" saved (future tense.)Acts 11:14 Now, I understand that in Calvinism, regeneration precedes faith. And Cornelius seems to have displayed faith prior to his regeneration. How could this be? I could understand if he was responding to "prevenient grace." But grace is Calvinism is either common or efficacious. And man cannot respond to common grace. After a lengthy proof of the fact that Cornelius could not be saved prior to Peter's message, John Piper, in a sermon on this passage, says: "Here's my suggestion. Cornelius represents a kind of unsaved person among an unreached people group who is seeking God in an extraordinary way. And Peter is saying that God accepts this search as genuine (hence "acceptable" in verse 35) and works wonders to bring that person the gospel." "So the fear of God that is acceptable to God in verse 35 is a true sense that there is a holy God, that we have to meet him some day as desperate sinners, that we cannot save ourselves and need to know God's way of salvation, and that we pray for it day and night and seek to act on the light we have. This is what Cornelius was doing." There is no doubt to me that God seeks all men: though nature, through conscience, through the Word and through the incarnation of the Christ who came to bring light to the world. That Christ died for us while we were yet sinners. And since God sought us first, all men can now seek God. But in Calvinism, how could Cornelius seek God without first having the regeneration of efficacious grace?