Correct translation of Luke 1:37?

Thanks, HankD!

 

There were quite a few people in quite a few nations during that time who weren't apostate Pope-olators and came to Jesus by hearing the word of God as Scripture says. These are the people who didn't make our history books as they lived quiet, unassuming lives.

 

Luke 1:37 (Amplified Bible):

For with God nothing is ever impossible
and no word from God shall
be without power or impossible of fulfillment.

 

Thank You Brother Ed!

HankD

 

Why doesn't the Amplified book leave it at, "For with God nothing is ever impossible." I think that covers everything, right. That's way I also like the King James Bible rendering. For with God nothing shall be impossible. At the end of that sentence, you can put a big'o PERIOD.

 

I wouldn't put a period there because to do so would ignore the two greek words "pan rhema" in the original language.

What do they mean? Well pas/pan means "all" or "every" and rhema is Strong's 4487
roughly: that which has been spoken:

http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/words/1072458025-2965.html

A functional equivalent might be:
For with God nothing shall be impossible of all He has spoken.

We may like the sound of the KJB wording but it does not reflect ALL the words of the original language.

While I admit that the Amplified ADDS words of clarification it is doing just what it claims an "amplification" giving a specific interpretation of the general principal.

The KJB (we are told) is a functional equivalent but therefore functionally weak in this passage because it ignores these two original language words while the Ampilified does just that, amplifies dynamically upon what is there.

Now I know the KJVO have mocked those who "correct" the KJB. I don't care, in this case thanks be to those others who don't care about the mockery of men and honestly translated what they see in the text.

That is not to condemn the KJB translators because no translation is perfect. They did a job which resulted in a Bible which was mightily used of God. But that same claim can be made for the Latin Vulgate eek! (I think the word is better than the symbol).

Yes, the Vulgate, one of the progenitor translations of the KJB from which early English Bibles were translated.

HankD

 

HankD said:
We may like the sound of the KJB wording but it does not reflect ALL the words of the original language.

Do you deny rhema can mean thing?

 

Yes, but I don't think "deny" covers my feelings concerning this specific instance, because the Greek word "rhema" has a much narrower focus than "thing".

In Matthew 19:26
But Jesus beheld [them], and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.

"with God all things are possible" "all things" is the single word "panta" without the "rhema" and therefore is fine (IMO).

The balanced view:

Could God save all men if He chose to do so?
Yes.

Does His word give limitations to what He actually intends to do?

HankD

 

HankD said:
Yes, but I don't think "deny" covers my feelings concerning this specific instance, because the Greek word "rhema" has a much narrower focus than "thing".

Both Thayer's lexicon and the lexicon in the back of George Ricker Berry's Interlinear KJV support rhema meaning 'thing'.

Thayer: 2. In imitation of the Hebr. 'davar', the subject matter of speech, thing spoken of, thing; ...
Berry: (2) a thing, a matter, a business...

Do you reject these sources? If so, why? Even so, do you think their position is reasonable?

[ December 26, 2003, 01:31 PM: Message edited by: timothy 1769 ]

 

Very nice, and very accurate. I think you should consider publishing your own translation. No joke.

 

Yes, but like I said, because of the context of this specific passage, in the very next verse we have:

Luke 1:38 And Mary said, Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word-rhema. And the angel departed from her.

"Let it be unto me according to thy thing" (clumsy at the very least).

HankD