"And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils..." -KJV I have two questions concerning this verse: 1. I read that the greek form refers explicitly to believers at that time. It is in no way a promise for people who believed after this was spoken by Jesus. Is that true (talking about the greek form, not theology)? 2. I also heard that a more correct translation is "These signs will follow them who have believed...". Is this true? Thanks for your time and God bless.