Correcting a comment about Tyndale's translation

In another thread an erroneous statement (underlined) was made --

Tyndale is indeed credited with coining the English term "passover"; he employed his new word to translate the Hebrew word pecach in his 1530 'Pentateuch'.

However, the book of Acts is a work of the apostolic writings of the 1st century AD and Tyndale used "ester" & "ester lamb" throughout his 1534 translation of the 'New Testament' for the Greek word pascha (except for 3 times when he used "paschall"); but he NEVER rendered it "passover". For example, here is Tyndale's translation of Mark 14:12 --

And the fyrste daye of swete breed when men offer ye pascall lambe his disciples sayd vnto him:
where wilt thou that we goo and prepare that thou mayst eate the ester lambe?​

Indeed, Tyndale was not an idiot; and he did NOT use "passover" at all in his NT just four short years after he 'invented' the term.