Correcting the KJV with the Greek

OK, try Hebrews 6:6. The KJV makes it out to be a conditional statement with the "if". But the underlying Greek has no such animal (it would show a first, second or third class conditional in order to justify the "if") - even in the TR. The KJV makes it out to be a hypothetical situation. But, in the Greek it is a statement of fact, the author IS talking about someone that believes (6:4-5) then falls away (whatever that means).

 

Part of the problem of KJVO thinking is that it seems to act as if they KJV was the original text as written by the original authors inspired by the Holy Spirit.

However, the original texts were in Greek and Hebrew therefore every translation including the KJV needs to be examined by the original languages.

 

You mean to say you think they didn't get a new revelation? Are you disputing the idea that they think they get new revelations when it suits their whims? Are you disputing the idea that KJVO folks are just like Mormons who are trying to uphold their their doctrine by claiming new revelations? I always thought it was possible to be in such tune with God that only I could know God and His will for everyone else including the writing of scripture.

 

If it isn't hypothetical, who is it referring to? The statement would make little to no sense in English with out the word if.

 

Still, same point remains, I don't think the Greek text meant it that way either. And putting the "if" in there does leave it open to debate.

Besides, this one was just off the top of my head between writing three papers due this week. I'll sleep on it and see if I can think of any others.

 

The suggested web site says: //What they do know is how to use a Greek/English dictionary or lexicon to tell them what the Bible “really means.” It would appear then that the dictionary has become their final authority rather than God’s word. Who wrote this lexicon that supersedes the King James Bible in their mind? The lexicon was certainly not inspired by God.//

Unfortunately, this logic, taken to it's complete state
says that if you look in a dictionary, your superceede
the Written Word of God. But then those who don't check
their dictionary make mistakes understanding the will of God
and instead perform the will of the evil one.

KEPT PURE IN ALL AGES [Recapturing the Authorised Version
and the Doctrine of Providential Preservation]
(Far Eastern Bible College Press, 2001) page 6:

Song title: God's Word preserved through the Ages
words by Jack sin; tune by William H Walter 1825-1893
(same tune as RISE UP, O MEN OF GOD!)

Verse 4:
During the Renasance,
Dawning Reformation;
The Greek NEw Testament edit,
Erasmus the elite.

Ain't Bible Worship fun

 

In my parallel NTin Greek & English (Zondervan)on the niv kj side they both show if, on the direct greek to english "if" is shown as "and" not "if".I am no greek scholar. That being said would'nt a better understanding of this come if we were to read and study Heb6:4-8? I understand there are 4 different views on how these scriptures should be seen.This is one of the more difficult passages in the Bible and the battle over it's correct interpretation has raged on for many years.

 

Ed wrote:

The suggested web site says: //What they do know is how to use a Greek/English dictionary or lexicon to tell them what the Bible “really means.”

Um, no, to tell us what the words in the Bible mean.

It would appear then that the dictionary has become their final authority rather than God’s word.

It may appear this way to Mr. Anderson, but reality is otherwise. Consulting helps to aid in understanding the Bible does not put those helps in a higher position of authority.

Who wrote this lexicon that supersedes the King James Bible in their mind?

No one wrote a lexicon that "supersedes" the Bible, King James or otherwise.

The lexicon was certainly not inspired by God.//

No one claimed it was. What fantasy world does "Pastor" Anderson inhabit?

 

A world where Ruckman is President, Waite is VP, and GA Riplinger is Secretary of State. Amen Ransom good post.

 

Are you claiming that the later editors of KJV editions who corrected the 1611 edition using the Hebrew and Greek were wrong?

Benjamin Blayney (1728-1801), the editor of the 1769 Oxford KJV edition, wrote that he made "frequent recourse" to the "Hebrew and Greek Originals" when he corrected the many errors that he found in former KJV editions.

 

A world where Ruckman is President, Waite is VP, and GA Riplinger is Secretary of State. Amen Ransom good post. </font>[/QUOTE]And Bozo was a clown.

 

WOW, I have NEVER seen this before. A KJVO comes on, makes a bunch of claims, tries to spread his ideas, and then refuses to answer any question which may discredit his premise.

I tell ya, every day I see something new here. Tomorrow, I think someone will claim to have bought a 1611 edition of the KJV at a garage sale, and found it is dated from the 3rd century BC. I'm still trying to figure out if I would be surprised.

 

Due to the nature of the OP and considering thast this is only going to result in the same arguments as usual on this topic I am going to close this thing.

I strongly suspect that this was a "drive by shooting."

I will consider reopening it if the author of the OP PMs me with his motivation for starting this discussion.