On another thread in this forum, Dr. Walter has opined that Mary had no choice in whether to give birth to Jesus. Specifically, he said: There isn't much scriptural evidence one way of the other, although it is abundantly clear that her conception was not a fait accompli at the time of the Annunciation by Gabriel. It was to happen in the future--maybe one minute, maybe several weeks--but definitely a future event. Luke describes it this way: The angel decribes an event that is going to happen. Mary wonders how it is going to happen because she does not "know" a man and the angel explains it to her. Then Mary says, "Be it unto me according to thy word." Is this last statement of Mary an act of consent or merely one of approval? Would it have made any difference if Mary had said, "No, I don't want to do this right now."