Our annual deacon letter just went out. Some of us were talking about the qualifications that is set forth in Acts 6:1-6 and 1 Timothy 3:1-13. There were several comments made about the list of qualifications that are laid out in Timothy. The main question that came up was divorce. While 1 Timothy 3:2 says that they are to be "husband of but one wife", what was meant by that. Was this a statement of the times as common practice of that era was multiple wifes or did it mean that they are to only have one wife period? Then there was the question of, what if the divorce was a result of an unequally yoked marriage as discribe by Paul in 1 Corinthians 7:12-16. What if the man accepted that the wife was an unbeliever but due to her unfaithfulness, divorced her and is now married to a wife who is a baptized believer? Would such a person be disqualified? We had a pretty lenghty discussion on this and I think we had more questions than answers by the time it was over with.