In case you haven't seen it yet, here is the debate: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zbEnNiIlujw What do you think? My opinion is that no he did not exegete the text in the traditional sense. Some might call what he did eisogesis. However, my slant is that he simply applied a deductive argument and hoped people would make the parallel case for themselves. However, exegesis is more of an inductive exercise. I actually had my Greek text opened for White's presentation. It was not needed w/ Flowers b/c he didn't really comment on the previous context, grammar, or syntax of the passage in question.