define partiality

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by sharpSword, Apr 15, 2004.

  1. sharpSword

    sharpSword
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    1 Timothy 5:21 I charge thee before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, and the elect angels, that thou observe these things without preferring one before another, doing nothing by partiality.

    17 But the wisdom that is from above is first pure, then peaceable, gentle, and easy to be entreated, full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality, and without hypocrisy.


    What does having partiality mean in our daily walk, and is it something that can be avoided or is it something that we wrestle with on a regular basis with interaction with people?
     
  2. North Carolina Tentmaker

    North Carolina Tentmaker
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    SharpSword:

    These are two different Greek words you have quoted. In I Tim 5:21 the word is "prosklisis." In James 3:17 the word quoted is "adiakritos."

    In I Timothy Paul is talking about judging others. In verse 20 he talks about publicly rebuking sin. In this verse partiality is used as a noun and seems to me to be an preconceived bias. IMHO it would seem that he is saying that we need to lay aside any personal bias or previous inclination towards the guilt or innocence of someone before we do this.

    James is talking about Godly wisdom. Verse 16 speaks of envy, strife, and confusion and how these are not of God. In this verse the word partiality is used as an adjective to describe Godly wisdom and seems to mean uncertainty or vagueness.

    Neither of these words occurs anywhere else in scripture.
     
  3. sharpSword

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    North Carolina Tentmaker "These are two different Greek words you have quoted. In I Tim 5:21 the word is "prosklisis." In James 3:17 the word quoted is "adiakritos."

    I never noticed that before. Thanks. [​IMG]

    " James is talking about Godly wisdom. Verse 16 speaks of envy, strife, and confusion and how these are not of God. In this verse the word partiality is used as an adjective to describe Godly wisdom and seems to mean uncertainty or vagueness."

    I had always thought of it as an extension also of James 2 and the respect of persons based on appearance and such. Am I wrong in also tying it to that, or is it simply an expansion of that teaching?
     
  4. North Carolina Tentmaker

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    sharpSword:

    I don't know, that may be a good point tying it back to chapter 2. Especially verse 4. I had thought that the meaning here was to be clear in our beliefs and not wishy washy or vague, but I think treating all people equally without preconceived biases may be equally valid here.

    That respect of persons of course can go way beyond appearance and could include nationality, race, sex, age, denomination, dress, hairstyle, and so on.
     
  5. MalkyEL

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    I agree with you. I also took the James 3 verse to mean that we should not show partiality when sharing God's Word and wisdom with others - treating everyone the same.

    Within the context of the last few verses, it appears to me that our treatment of others - speaking and acting gently and peaceably when sharing His truth - is crucial in showing the fruit of the Spirit.

    James 3:13 ΒΆ Who is wise and knowing among you? Let him show his works by his good conduct with meekness of wisdom.
    14 But if you have bitter jealousy and strife in your hearts, do not glory and lie against the truth.
    15 This is not the wisdom coming down from above, but is earthly, sensual, devilish.
    16 For where envying and strife are , there is confusion and every foul deed.
    17 But the wisdom that is from above is first truly pure, then peaceable, gentle, easy to be entreated, full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality and without hypocrisy.
    18 And the fruit of righteousness is sown in peace by those who make peace.
     

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